Micro Final Exam Portage Learning Questions and Answers 100% Pass

Micro Final Exam Portage Learning Questions and Answers 100% Pass Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply. Amoeba Algae Yeast Bacteria Amoeba & Algae True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers. True The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply): Lipid synthesis Protein Synthesis Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes Protein modification and distribution To produce energy ATP Protein Synthesis Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description. 1) Nucleus 2) Lysosome 3) Plasma Membrane 4) Golgi Aparatus 5) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the (select all that apply) Cell Wall Outer leaflet Cell envelope Capsid Cell envelope The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply): Lipid synthesis Protein modification and distribution Protein synthesis To produce energy Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes Protein modification and distribution True of False. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are heterotropic. True What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply. FADH2 FAD NADH NAD+ FADH2 NADH In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. Carbohydrates Lactose Fatty acid chains Nucleic acids Nucleic acids True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. True True or False. Plants, algae and bacteria all contain chloroplasts. False The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that apply. NADPH H20 ATP CO2 Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate NADPH ATP In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where? Membrane True or False: The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light. False True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria is the presence of LPS in the outer membrane. True True or False: If you wish to study the motility of an organism you cannot heat fix, but you can chemically fix the specimen. False both heat and chemical will kill the cell You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. Simple stain and I would use crystal violet You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide. Red Cells on a blue background True or False: A Giemsa stain can be used to determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria. True Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice (A). Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) This shows a 2D image of the internal structure, which is only shown by TEM. Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice (B). Scanning electron microscope and we can tell based on the trademark shell that is shown in the 20 nm image. True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial population. True A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalize plating strategy? Phase-Dilution streak In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the highest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4? P2 True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop is not required for each phase as long as the bacterial culture is pure. False The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens? The resulting gradient has in it the growth of individual colonies. True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C. True When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why? LB media because all of the other forms are selective media meaning they may potentially inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults. True True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus. True The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria? Gas gangrene Tetanus Leprosy Botulism Gas gangrene True or False. Bubonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes. True List the following disease: Anthrax True or False. Chlyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates alone. False True or False. Similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the entire body. False What linear, double-stranded, enveloped DNA virus is the first virus (as of Oct. 26, 1977) to be officially declared eradicated? Smallpox also known as variola virus By whom and where was the first polio vaccine developed? By Jonas Stalk at the University of Pittsburgh A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit viral entry of Influenza. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why? Hemagglutinins because hemagglutinins are involved in entry of viral particle into a host's cell. Whereas, neuraminidase is involved in budding and relase of the new viral particles from the host cell. True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is dumbbell shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. False What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus targets the CNS (central nervous system), causing potentially catastrophic damage to motor neurons? Polio (poliomyelitis)