Nutritional Sciences From Fundamentals to Food 3rd Edition Shelley - Test Bank

Chapter 1 – The Science of Nutrition Multiple Choice Answer, level, page Level: K = knowledge, A = application/critical thinking What Do We Mean by “Nutrition”? (pp. 5-8) a A 6 1. Which of the following ingredients in a box of toaster pastries would contribute macronutrients to one’s diet? a. Water, high-fructose corn syrup, egg yolk b. Niacin, folic acid, sucralose c. Riboflavin, salt, sodium benzoate d. Thiamin mononitrate, soybean oil, sugar c K 5 2. The term “nutrition” refers to the science of how living organisms obtain and use _____ to support all the processes required for their existence. a. sunlight b. proteins c. food d. chlorophyll d K 5 3. What is the term for substances in food that are used by the body for at least one of the following: energy, structure, or regulation of chemical reactions in the body? a. Calories b. Vitamins c. Minerals d. Nutrients a K 6 4. A “nonessential nutrient” is one that the body_____. a. can make in the amount needed b. doesn’t need c. cannot use d. stores for later use c K 5-6 5. Nutrients considered essential must ____. a. be synthesized by the body daily b. be stored in the body c. come from the food we eat d. be consumed from organic foods c K 6 6. If a toddler’s only source of a nutrient is from food but an adult can make the nutrient in an amount sufficient to meet his needs, the nutrient is considered to be _____. a. nonessential b. essential c. conditionally essential d. partially essential b K 6 7. Macronutrients include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and _____. a. calories b. water c. vitamins d. minerals a K 8 8. Which term is used to describe foods such as soy milk and tomatoes that, when consumed, do more to promote health than simply helping the body meet its basic nutritional needs? a. Functional b. Essential c. Organic d. Biodiverse a K 7 9. Which U.S. government agency certifies foods as grown and processed “organically”? a. Department of Agriculture b. Food and Drug Administration c. Department of Health and Human Services d. Federal Trade Commission b K 7 10. Foods are considered “organic” if they are produced, gown, and harvested without the use of most conventional pesticides, fertilizers made with synthetic ingredients, bioengineering, or ______. a. distilled water b. ionizing radiation c. ultraviolet light d. greenhouses c K 7 11. A U.S. government agency certifies that foods labeled as “organic” are _____ as compared to foods not labeled as “organic.” a. more nutritious b. safer to eat c. grown in a specified way d. fresher c K 7 12. To be labeled as “organic,” crackers must have at least _____% organic ingredients. a. 50 b. 65 c. 70 d. 85 d K 8 13. What do scientists call the health-promoting substances found in plants? a. Zoonutrients b. Organics c. Functionals d. Phytochemicals What Are the Major Nutrient Classes? (pp. 8-10) d K 8 14. What do most cells use as their primary source of energy? a. Fatty acids b. Proteins c. Sucrose d. Glucose b K 9 15. What do proteins contain that carbohydrates do not? a. Carbon b. Nitrogen c. Hydrogen d. Oxygen d K 9 16. Approximately how much of a human’s total body weight is water? a. 20% b. 35% c. 45% d. 60% c K 10 17. Which nutrients function as antioxidants that protect your body from the damaging effects of toxic compounds such as air pollution? a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Vitamins d. Minerals b A 10 18. Someone who eats a diet that contains very little fat could be at risk for developing a deficiency of which vitamin? a. C b. E c. B1 d. B12 a K 10 19. Like vitamins, _____cannot be used for energy, although many are involved in energy-producing reactions. a. minerals b. carbohydrates c. lipids d. proteins How Do Foods Provide Energy? (pp. 10-13) a K 10 20. How many kcalories would one get from consuming one gram of vitamin A? a. 0 b. 4 c. 7 d. 9 c K 10 21. The body’s cells transfer the chemical energy from the carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids in food into _____. a. kcalories b. phytochemicals c. adenosine triphosphate d. nucleic acids c K 11 22. How many calories are in a Calorie or a kcalorie? a. 10 b. 100 c. 1,000 d. 10,000 Toaster Coasters label Ingredients: Enriched flour, bleached (wheat flour, malted barley flour, niacin, ferrous sulfate, thiamin mononitrate, riboflavin, folic acid), water, partially hydrogenated soybean and cottonseed oil, high fructose corn syrup, sugar, huckleberries (10% of filling), maltodextrin, corn starch, modified corn starch, dry yeast, salt dextrose, whey, egg yolk, baking powder, citric acid, xanthan gum, mono and diglycerides, potassium sorbate and sodium benzoate (preservative), natural and artificial flavor, guar gum, polysorbate 60, locust bean gum, colored with (red 40, yellow 5, blue 1, artificial color), sucralose. MAY CONTAIN WHEAT, MILK AND EGG PRODUCTS Refer to the Toaster Coasters label to answer questions 23-25. a A 12 23. Which of the following is an accurate conclusion from the information on this food label? a. Roughly 42% of the Calories in a Toaster Coaster come from fat. b. Roughly 9% of the carbohydrate Calories in a Toaster Coaster come from sugar. c. Everything contained in a Toaster Coaster is considered a nutrient. d. Someone who should consume 2500 kcalories each day would get 9% of their carbohydrate Calories from consuming 1 Toaster Coaster. c A 11 24. Carlos ate half a box of Toaster Coasters before class yesterday. How many Calories did Carlos consume? a. 380 b. 430 c. 570 d. 760 b A 10 25. Which ingredients in a box of Toaster Coasters would provide the body with energy? a. Salt, water, sugar b. Enriched flour, cottonseed oil, huckleberries c. Egg yolk, citric acid, dry yeast d. Sodium benzoate, corn starch, malted barley flour c A 11-12 26. Approximately how many Calories would be provided by a food that contains 2 grams of protein, 8 grams of carbohydrate, and 5 grams of fat? a. 135 b. 110 c. 85 d. 60 a A 11-12 27. If Food A provides 10 grams of fat and 5 grams of protein, and Food B provides 5 grams of fat and 10 grams of protein, Food A will provide _____ percent of the number of total kcalories provided by Food B. a. 129 b. 100 c. 77 d. 55 c A 11-12 28. A drink that contains 10 grams of carbohydrate and 15 grams of alcohol would provide _____ kcalories. a. 100 b. 190 c. 145 d. 175 b K 11-12 29. Gram per gram, which of the following provides the most Calories? a. Alcohol b. Lipids c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates a A 12 30. The popcorn you ate contained 420 Calories and 200 of these were from fat. About what percent of the Calories came from fat? a. 47 b. 41 c. 36 d. 32 b K 11 31. A device for measuring the amount of energy in a food is called a _____. a. scale b. bomb calorimeter c. energy chamber d. Calorie compartment b A 11-12 32. You have just purchased a food containing 9 grams of protein, 6 grams of fat, and 13 grams of carbohydrate per serving. Each serving contains: a. 112 kcalories b. 142 kcalories c. 177 kcalories d. 222 kcalories c A 12 33. A meal you had from a restaurant contained about 1,000 kcalories. How many additional kcalories would 11 grams of alcohol add to your meal? a. 0 b. 44 c. 77 d. 99 c A 11-12 34. A sandwich you ate contained 20 grams of CHO, 32 grams of protein, and 10 grams of fat. What percentage of the kcalories in the sandwich came from protein? a. 27% b. 30% c. 43% d. 57% b A 12-13 35. If Joe requires 2800 kcalories per day, about how many of those kcalories should come from fat or lipids? a. 280-550 b. 560-980 c. d. d A 12-13 36. Jen is considering following a 1500-kcalorie diet that includes 500 kcalories from carbohydrates. This diet _____. a. provides the recommended amount of carbohydrate b. is acceptable if the protein intake is roughly 10%-35% of kcalories c. is acceptable if the fat content is roughly 10%-15% of kcalories d. provides less than the recommended amount of carbohydrate b A 11-12 37. A convenience meal contains 20 g of fat, 32 g of carbohydrate, and 19 g of protein. How many kcalories does the meal provide? a. 284 b. 384 c. 479 d. 544 How Is Nutrition Research Conducted? (pp. 13-19) d A 14 38. Mr. Sawyer has type 2 diabetes, as did his father. He weighs about 30 pounds more than he should, due in part to his love of sweets. He often has dessert with lunch and dinner. He is employed full-time as a highway construction worker and has health insurance. What type of nutrition-health relationship is this? a. Simple because he has only one disease b. Simple because his diabetes is hereditary rather than diet related c. Complex because he is overweight and diabetic d. Complex because he is genetically predisposed to develop diabetes b K 13 39. After making a precise observation, the next step in testing theories using the scientific method would be to _____. a. conduct experiments b. propose a hypothesis c. make an observation d. draft the conclusions a K 13 40. In applying the scientific method, it is important that the observation is _____ and _____. a. accurate, complete b. simple, repeated c. interesting, useful d. noteworthy, expected d A 14 41. Since we know that if someone takes in more kcalories than they use they will gain weight, this is considered to be an example of a _____. a. positive correlation b. simple relationship c. complex correlation d. cause-and-effect relationship d A 17 42. Maria has been asked to be a subject in a study to determine if additional vitamin A will promote the growth of healthy, strong fingernails. Since she wants the study to be as close to the “ideal” nutrition intervention study as possible, she will want to be sure that: a. only the researcher knows which participants receive vitamin A. b. all of the participants are between 18 and 25 years of age. c. her chances of getting vitamin A are better than those of anyone else. d. half of the participants get something that looks like additional vitamin A but isn’t. b A 14 43. Which of the following is an example of a positive correlation? a. The less John eats, the more muscle mass he loses b. The longer Michelle exercises, the more water she needs c. The more vitamins Sam consumes, the less energy he has d. The more kcalories Mike eats, the less energy he uses c A 14 44. Which of the following statements is an example of a “simple relationship”? a. Avoiding exercise can reduce one’s life expectancy. b. Eating organic foods may improve nutritional status. c. Consuming inadequate vitamin C results in a deficiency. d. Consuming inadequate calcium may result in osteoporosis. a K 14 45. Researchers should not recommend that all children eat less to decrease their risk for obesity because the link between energy intake and risk of childhood obesity is _____. a. an interaction b. a simple relationship c. a lifestyle factor d. undocumented b K 14 46. Which of the following is an example of an environmental factor that influences health? a. Consuming a varied diet b. Exposure to pesticides c. Exercising moderately d. One’s ethnicity b K 15 47. Before a hypothesis becomes a scientific finding, what has to occur? a. Debate, presentation of opposing views, and generalization b. Experimentation, data collection, and interpretation of data c. Meta-analysis, summary, and proponent arguments d. Peer review, delineation of pros and cons, preparation of a bibliography d K 15 48. The type of study that includes scientists making observations and recording information without actually asking the subjects to change their behaviors or undergo any sort of treatment is called a(n) _____ study. a. controlled b. experimental c. prescribed d. epidemiologic c A 15 49. If you wanted to determine the relationships among age, gender, activity level, alcohol consumption, and body weight among the students attending the universities in your state, an _____ study would be appropriate. a. intervention b. efficacy c. epidemiologic d. intercession a K 16 50. The Framingham Study investigated the relationship between lifestyle factors and which other variable? a. Heart health b. Cancer c. Obesity d. Longevity d K 16 51. One of the limitations of epidemiologic studies is that the results cannot be interpreted as proving a(n) _____. a. association b. positive correlation c. negative correlation d. relationship to be causal b A 15-16 52. The nutrition researchers at Excellent State U conducted an epidemiologic study of the students’ consumption of snacks from campus vending machines. They found that most first-year students purchased snacks from the vending machines and that the average weight gain for first-year students was 15-25 pounds during the year. Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion? a. Eating snacks from vending machines causes students to gain weight. b. For first-year students, there may be an association between purchasing snacks from vending machines and gaining weight. c. For first-year students, eating snacks from vending machines causes a weight gain of 15-25 pounds. d. For college students, there may be an association between purchasing snacks from vending machines and gaining 15-25 pounds during their first year. a K 16 53. NHANES simultaneously monitors nutrition and _____ in the U.S. a. health of the population b. weight gain among adults over 21 c. the incidence of diabetes in children over the age of 2 d. the incidence of vitamin and mineral deficiencies in low-income groups d K 16 54. What is the large, ongoing epidemiologic study to simultaneously monitor nutrition and health in the U.S. population called? a. Nutrition, Health, and Nurturing Exploratory Study b. Nationwide Historic and Nutritional Examination Study c. Nationwide Home and Nutritional Exploratory Survey d. National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey c K 16 55. When a hypothesis suggests a causal relationship, what type of study will the scientist most likely conduct? a. Exacting b. Interpretive c. Intervention d. Epidemiologic c A 15 56. You are involved in a study observing the eating and health behaviors of African Americans across the United States. You are conducting a(n): a. Hawthorn study. b. intervention study. c. epidemiologic study. d. cell culture study. b A 17 57. While you are studying the impact of increasing soy intake on bone health, some of your subjects decide on their own to begin to consume more cow’s milk because of their participation in the study. This phenomenon is the _____effect. a. placebo b. Hawthorn c. intervention d. random c A 17 58. Professor Eatwell plans to study the effect of zinc supplements on young adults’ susceptibility to the cold virus. She will give some of the young adults zinc supplements while the _____ group will get supplements that do not contain zinc. a. investigation b. research c. control d. experimental a A 18-19 59. Suppose a human intervention study provides evidence that when adults consume 5 servings of fruits and vegetables their blood lipid levels are positively impacted. The most appropriate conclusion the researchers could make would be that this relationship between diet and blood lipids: a. will be true for other adults as well. b. applies only to the adults tested. c. will be true for other adults and children living in the same area. d. causes blood lipid levels to decrease in proportion to the number of servings of fruits and vegetables consumed. d A 17 60. Mia is a participant in a human intervention study designed to test the effectiveness of losing weight by eating a diet that contains 25% of one’s required kcalories from fat. Because she is in this study, Mia has decided to increase the amount of exercise she gets and to reduce the amount of beer she drinks. Mia’s behavior is an example of _____. a. the Sanders effect b. subject bias c. a confounding variable d. the Hawthorne effect b A 17 61. Mark is a participant in a human intervention study that is testing the impact of selenium supplements on the performance of endurance athletes. Though Mark does not know if he is receiving selenium or an inactive sugar pill, he is sure that it is the tablet that he is taking that has helped him shave several minutes off his usual marathon time. What effect is Mark experiencing? a. Thornburg b. Placebo c. Predisposition d. Hawthorne a K 18 62. Random assignment of participants to treatment or control groups is important because it distributes _____ equally among study groups. a. confounding variables b. men and women c. subjects with different ethnic backgrounds d. consequence factors d K 17 63. What is a “fake” or imitation treatment called? a. Replica b. Synthetic c. Mock d. Placebo c K 17 64. Which term describes a study where neither the researcher nor the participants know who is in the treatment group and who is not? a. Randomized-trial b. Placebo-controlled c. Double-blind d. Researcher-protected b K 19 65. Studying phenomena within living organisms is referred to as studies conducted _____. a. in vitro b. in vivo c. randomly d. organically a K 17 66. Scientists use many techniques to decrease bias in studies. What do scientists call the technique in which the participants do not know if they are receiving the actual treatment or a fake? a. Blinding b. Randomization c. Use of control groups d. Use of placebos Are All Nutrition Claims Believable? (pp. 19-22) a A 20 67. Chris turned in a paper on the benefits of organically raised produce; however, he lost points because his references included several articles that quoted data from other studies. What was Chris’s error? a. He chose references that were not primary sources. b. The research was not conducted by a scientist. c. The references he chose included funding source bias. d. The research was not supported by reputable organizations. d K 20 68. The first place that information was reported or published is called the _____. a. foundation document b. principal document c. key source d. primary source c K 20 69. Which of the following publications is the preferred source for reputable information about nutrition and other sciences? a. Daily newspapers b. Books written by well-known authors c. Peer-reviewed journals d. Product information inserts a K 21 70. If a group of farmers who grow oranges helps fund a university-based research project to determine the amount of vitamin C contained in fresh vs. frozen orange juice, it is appropriate to _____. a. determine if the funding group influenced the research findings b. discount the research as being biased c. trust the findings since the research was university based d. discount the research because it was not government funded c K 21 71. What is the name of a searchable biomedical database that can be used to find out important details about the source of a study? a. NutrInfo b. StudySource c. PubMed d. BioBase Nutrition and Health: What Is the Connection? (pp. 22-28) Refer to the figure to answer questions 72 and 73. b A 23-24 72. According to the figure, the greatest gains in life expectancy occurred _____. a. before 1900 b. between 1900 and 1950 c. between 1960 and 1980 d. after 2000 b A 23 73. According to the figure, the infant mortality rate decreased: a. from and then increased slightly between 1950 and 1960. b. from 100 deaths per 1000 births per year in 1900 to about 30 in 1950. c. from 75 deaths per 1000 births per year in 1960 to about 15 in 1980. d. more between 1990 and 2000 than between 1970 and 1980. b A 24-25 74. According to the figure, which of the following is an accurate statement? Per 100,000 people per year, a. fewer people died from diarrhea in 1902 than from accidents in 2007. b. fewer people died from cancer in 1950 than in 2007. c. more people died from heart disease in 2007 than in 1950. d. more people died from strokes in 1950 than in 1902. d K 23 75. What is used to measure and assess illness over a span of time? a. Mortality rates b. Migration patterns c. Infection patterns d. Morbidity rates a K 23 76. The number of people who are newly diagnosed with a disease in a given period of time is referred to as the _____ of that disease. a. incidence b. prevalence c. pervasiveness d. inclusion c K 26 77. The major causes of disability and death in the U.S. are currently: a. smoking and accidents. b. HIV/AIDS and infectious diseases. c. heart disease and cancer. d. diabetes and obesity. b K 24 78. Which term refers to contagious diseases that are caused by pathogens? a. Chronic b. Infectious c. Persistent d. Acute c K 24 79. In the U.S. today, we are facing a rising incidence of illnesses that develop slowly and continue for a long time. Which term refers to this type of disease? a. Persistent b. Malnutrition c. Chronic d. Infectious c K 27 80. What do researchers call the shift from undernutrition to overnutrition or unbalanced nutrition as a society becomes more industrialized? a. Negative shift b. Nutrition evolution c. Nutrition transition d. Positive shift d K 23 81. You are teaching students about the statistical prediction of years of life remaining for a person at a particular age. This concept is called: a. morbidity rate. b. mortality rate. c. longevity. d. life expectancy. a K 22 82. In the U.S., the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is responsible for a. monitoring health trends and compiling health-related statistics. b. preventing epidemics. c. monitoring the safety of the food supply. d. preventing the importation of contaminated food. a K 24-25 83. At the turn of the 20th century, _____ diseases were the leading causes of death, rather than _____ ones. a. infectious, chronic b. vitamin-deficiency, infectious c. chronic, infectious d. vitamin-deficiency, chronic d A 26 84. You are studying disease incidence and prevalence in America. Overall, you would expect the 21st century to be characterized by increased _____ and _____. a. infectious diseases, chronic diseases b. infectious diseases, mortality rates c. mortality rates, life expectancy d. chronic diseases, life expectancy b A 26 85. The major nutrition issues in the U.S. are now _____ and _____. a. vitamin deficiencies, food shortages b. over consumption, poor food choices c. fraudulent nutrition claims, food spoilage d. trans fats, contamination of the food supply d K 26 86. Researchers estimate that _____% of adults in the U.S. aged 20 and over are either overweight or obese. a. 30 b. 40 c. 60 d. 70 True/False Answer, level, page F K 5 1. All nutritional scientists are dietitians. F K 5 2. All compounds in food are nutrients. T K 6 3. Nonessential nutrients do not need to be eaten to maintain health, as the body can make them in amounts needed to satisfy its physiological requirements. F K 6 4. Vitamins and minerals are organic chemicals. T K 7 5. When a food is labeled as being “Certified Organic” it has been grown and processed according to national organic standards. F K 8 6. Phytochemicals are essential nutrients. F K 8-9 7. Carbohydrates contain C, H, O, and N while lipids contain only C, H, and O. F K 9-10 8. All nutrients primarily play a structural role in the body. T K 9 9. Lipids include a variety of fats and oils. F K 6, 9 10. All inorganic substances in the human body are called minerals. T K 11 11. Gram per gram, fat provides more energy than either carbohydrate or protein. T K 13 12. The first step of the scientific method is to make an appropriate and accurate observation. F K 15 13. Epidemiologic studies investigate causal relationships. T K 17 14. Control groups in an intervention study do not receive the treatment or intervention. T A 17 15. In your intervention study, group A received a nutrient supplement, while group B received a capsule that did not contain that nutrient. Group B received a placebo. T K 20 16. A peer-reviewed journal contains articles that were read and “approved” by a group of scientists knowledgeable in that area of study. F A 20 17. A health claim is probably reputable if it is published in a magazine published by a natural health food store. F K 23 18. For a given period of time, the morbidity rate refers to the number of deaths while the mortality rate relates to the number of illnesses. F K 24 19. A chronic disease is an infectious illness that results in death. F A 16 20. NHANES is an intervention study to assess U.S. diet and health trends. Discussion 1. Why is it recommended that people meet their nutritional needs by eating a variety of foods rather than by taking several supplements? Answer (key points): Scientists are still learning about the substances other than traditional macro- and micronutrients that are present in foods. These substances in food may reduce the risk for developing certain diseases. Supplements typically include primarily well-known nutrients and often provide these in mixtures and quantities that are inferior to the mixtures and quantities of nutrients one can get from eating a varied diet. (pp. 7-8) 2. What are the costs and benefits of eating “organic” foods? Answer (key points): (p. 7) (Some of the) Benefits of eating organic foods (Some of the) Costs of eating organic foods • Free of most conventional pesticides • Using less conventional pesticides is good for the environment • Free of most fertilizers made with synthetic ingredients • Foods are not bioengineered • Foods have not received ionizing radiation • Organic meat, eggs, and dairy are from animals raised without growth-producing hormones and antibiotics • Taste, color, appearance, and other aesthetic factors may be far superior to non-organics • Using less antibiotics may deter the development of “super bugs” that are resistant to antibiotics • May be more expensive than non-organic options due to increased costs of production, decreased yield, slower rate of growth, increased losses of crops to insects and diseases, and shorter shelf-life • “Natural” fertilizers such as manure may be sources of disease-causing organisms • Aesthetically, may show increased evidence of pest infestation and damage • May result in decreased availability of some foods in some areas because of the opportunities for spoilage associated with shipping, handling, and storage of some organic foods 3. Why are nutrition researchers interested in phytochemicals, zoonutrients, and functional foods? Answer (key points): Although not considered nutrients, these substances/foods may help reduce risk for developing certain diseases such as heart disease and cancer. They may improve health. (pp. 7-8) 4. What are the similarities and differences in structure and function among the six classes of nutrients? Answer (key points): (pp. 8-10) Nutrient Provide(s) Structure Provide(s) Energy Regulate(s) Reactions Composition Additional Considerations Protein x x x C, H, O, N plus sulfur and selenium Role in communications, movement, immunity Lipids x x C, H, O Cell membranes, nervous and reproductive systems Carbohydrates x x x C, H, O Fiber Vitamins x C, H, O plus phosphorous and sulfur Antioxidants Minerals x x Elements Water balance Water x H2O Temperature regulation, protects internal organs, insulation 5. What does the body use the energy from food for? Answer (key points): Cells in the body use energy from food to make adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which the body can then use for its functions—e.g., movement, digestion, body temperature, breathing, heart beat, etc. (pp. 10-11) 6. What are Calories and what nutrients provide them? Answer (key points): Calories are the units used to measure the amount of energy in foods. Protein, fat, and CHO (and alcohol) provide Calories or kcalories. (pp. 11-12) 7. Why is the scientific method used to test theories? Answer (key points): To provide a safeguard that conclusions are likely valid. Each step has safeguards to protect against errors and the human tendency to overlook results that contradict expectations. (pp. 13-15) 8. What are some of the questions that should be asked before one accepts a finding as true? Answer (key points): Was the study epidemiologic, intervention, or animal and cell-culture? Was the study randomized to control for confounding variables? Was the study double-blind to control for researcher and subject bias? Was the study placebo-controlled to control for the placebo and Hawthorne effects? (pp. 15-21) 9. What is the difference between things that are related by cause-and-effect versus things related by correlations? Give examples of things related in each way. Answer (key points): “Cause and effect” describes a situation where one factor causes another factor. Examples: Consuming excess energy causes weight gain; dropping a glass on a tile floor causes it to break; overcooking a food causes it to burn. When two factors are correlated, a change in one is related to, but does not cause, a change in the other. Examples: The time spent watching TV is correlated with obesity in children. Driving at excess speeds is correlated with the likelihood of having an accident. The time that raw meat is left at room temperature is associated with the likelihood of it spoiling. (p. 14) 10. Why do nutrition professionals sometimes change their recommendations for what people should do to optimize nutrition and health? Answer (key points): Relationships initially thought to be simple often turn out to be more complex. Often, scientific researchers first focus on simple relationships and then later explore the many interactions that exist among factors. As more is leaned about interactions, dietary recommendations may need to be modified. (pp. 14-15) 11. Why are studies such as the Framingham Heart Study and the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) important, and what have we learned from such studies? Answer (key points): The Framingham study was important as an epidemiologic investigation. In the 1940s we did not know enough about diet and heart disease to formulate hypotheses and do intervention studies. This study provided first convincing evidence that what a person eats is related to his/her risk for heart disease. NHANES is a large ongoing epidemiologic study to simultaneously monitor nutrition and health in the U.S. population. Through NHANES we are learning more about many factors—especially nutrition—that are important for fostering good health and long life in the U.S. population. (p. 16) 12. Since 2005, there have been several outbreaks of foodborne illnesses that have made people sick and resulted in the deaths of some. Why don’t scientists simply conduct intervention studies rather than those that are epidemiologic when some foods are thought to be contaminated so that they can be sure which foods are at fault and remove them from the food supply promptly? Answer (key points): Conducting intervention studies would require that scientists give contaminated foods to the research subjects. Doing so would result in some subjects becoming ill and perhaps dying. Because of the risk of becoming ill, this is not an acceptable scientific approach. Thus scientists rely on epidemiologic studies, which may suggest an association but do not prove cause and effect. (p. 17) 13. What are the similarities and differences and the advantages and limitations of epidemiologic studies, intervention studies, and animal studies? Answer (key points): (pp. 15-19) Type Advantages/Strengths Limitations Epidemiologic Studies • Can be used to explore complex interactions that are poorly understood • Often do not require extensive training of technology and lab personnel • Difficult to control for confounding factors • Can show associations; however, cannot prove cause and effect Intervention Studies • Provide evidence that a relationship is likely causal in nature • Results can be directly applied to humans • Require participants to undergo treatment • Difficult to control for confounding variables • Often impacted by Hawthorne effect, placebo effect, researcher and participant bias • Costly and time consuming Animal Studies • Can study issues when it is not practical or ethical to use human subjects • Can control more aspects of the animal subjects’ environment • Results cannot be directly applied to humans 14. How can scientific studies control for the Hawthorne effect, placebo effect, and researcher bias? Answer (key points): To control for Hawthorne effect, placebo effect, and researcher bias, scientists use blinding (especially double-blinding); use randomization; and control for confounding variables. (p. 17) 15. What guidelines should consumers use to make sound decisions about nutrition claims? Answer (key points): Assess the source of the information, the credibility of the research, source of funding (bias?), and appropriateness of the experimental design; and investigate whether public health organizations concur with the findings. (pp. 20-22) 16. What are the major health-related nutrition issues in the U.S., and what actions could individuals take to improve the situation? Answer (key points): Chronic, degenerative diseases (heart disease, cancer, stroke). Don’t use tobacco, be physically active, maintain good dietary habits including controlling Calories consumed, and manage body weight and body composition. (p. 26) Fill in the Blank 1. A behavioral component of our lives over which we may or may not have control (such as diet and exercise) is termed a __________. Answer: lifestyle factor (p. 14) 2. When two variables are linked by a __________, an alteration in one of the variables directly causes a change the other. Answer: cause-and-effect relationship or causal relationship (p. 14) 3. The __________ is the phenomenon in which study results are influenced by an unexpected alteration of a behavior by the study participants. Answer: Hawthorne effect (p. 17) 4. When the scientist conducting a study influences its results, that study is said to be flawed due to__________. Answer: researcher bias (p. 17) 5. A __________ is grown in the laboratory and used for in vitro research. Answer: cell culture system (p. 19) 6. In the U.S., the __________ is responsible for monitoring health trends and compiling health-related statistics. Answer: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (p. 22) 7. Individuals may or may not have control over __________, elements in their surroundings such as pollution and temperature. Answer: environmental factors (p. 14) 8. __________ studies involve the investigation of natural phenomena in a living organism. Answer: In vivo (p. 19) 9. Tom’s hemophilia could be considered a __________ because this condition was inherited from his parents and cannot be altered. Answer: genetic factor (p. 14) 10. In an __________, the relationship between two factors is influenced or modified by another factor. Answer: interaction (p. 14) 11. __________ studies involve the use of cells or environments that are not part of a living organism. Answer: In vitro (p. 19) 12. The __________ is the phenomenon in which there is an apparent effect of the treatment because the individual expects or believes that it will work. Answer: placebo effect (p. 17) 13. When a change in variable A is related to a change variable B, but researchers suspect variables C and D are also contributing to the change in B, the relationship between A and B is described as a(n) __________. Answer: correlation or association (p. 14) 14. A __________ is a prediction about the relationship between variables. Answer: hypothesis (p. 13) 15. A __________ relationship between two factors is not influenced or modified by another factor. Answer: simple (p. 14) Chapter 3 – Chemical, Biological, and Physiological Aspects of Nutrition Multiple Choice Answer, level, page Level: K = knowledge, A = application/critical thinking Introduction (p. 69) c K 69 1. The human body consists of primarily the elements _____. a. carbon, oxygen, iron, and calcium b. oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and vitamin C c. nitrogen, carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen d. carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen, and calcium b K 69 2. What are proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids composed of? a. Energy b. Elements c. Tissues d. Calories How Does Chemistry Apply to the Study of Nutrition? (pp. 71-76) a K 72 3. The fundamental units of matter are called _____. a. atoms b. protons c. ions d. electrons c K 72 4. Ions with an overall positive charge are called _____. a. anions b. neutrons c. cations d. protons b K 72 5. Atoms consist of subatomic units called protons, electrons, and _____. a. anions b. neutrons c. cations d. quarks a K 72 6. Which subatomic units are found in the nucleus of an atom? a. Neutrons and protons b. Neutrons and electrons c. Quarks and electrons d. Protons and electrons d K 72 7. An atom is neutral when the number of _____. a. neutrons equals the number of electrons and protons b. protons is twice the number of electrons c. electrons is twice the number of protons d. protons equals the number of electrons b K 72 8. If an atom has 4 protons and 2 electrons it will be called a(n) _____. a. quark b. ion c. lepton d. fragment c A 72 9. The reaction shown here represents _____. H2  2H+ + 2e- a. redox b. reduction c. oxidation d. oxygenation d K 72 10. Subatomic units that are positively charged are called _____. a. electrons b. neutrons c. molecules d. protons c A 72 11. When an atom of fluorine gains an electron it becomes the _____. a. cation fluorine b. cation fluoride c. anion fluoride d. anion fluorine b K 72 12. Oxidation is the _____. a. loss of 1 or more protons b. loss of 1 or more electrons c. gain of 1 or more protons d. gain of 1 or more electrons d K 73 13. Meat turns brown when exposed to air because the iron-containing proteins _____. a. become contaminated with bacteria b. become chemically unstable c. are reduced d. are oxidized b K 73 14. When one atom losses an electron and another atom simultaneously gains one, what has taken place is called _____. a. synthesis b. a redox reaction c. reduction d. metabolism a K 74 15. The attractive force between atoms formed through the transfer or sharing of electrons is called _____. a. a chemical bond b. magnetism c. a magnetic bond d. chemistry d A 73-74 16. Elemental iron is composed of _____ atoms. a. at least two different types of b. no more than two different types of c. no more than four different types of d. several of the same a K 73 17. Which of the following is one of the six most abundant elements in the human body? a. Phosphorus b. Iron c. Zinc d. Magnesium c A 73, 74 18. This is the chemical reaction that represents what usually happens when baking power reacts chemically while making a cake. This is an example of _____. NaAl(SO4)2 + 3 NaHCO3  Al(OH)3 + 2 Na2SO4 + 3 CO2 a. a change in pH b. hydrolysis c. a redox reaction d. condensation c K 74 19. Molecules are composed of atoms that are _____ joined together. a. physically b. electronically c. chemically d. automatically b K 74 20. In the molecular formula C6H12O2, how many atoms of oxygen are present? a. 1 b. 2 c. 6 d. 12 d K 74 21. What are molecules composed of two or more different atoms called? a. Ions b. Bonds c. Electrons d. Compounds c K 74 22. In the notation 3 C6H12O6, what does the “three” indicate? a. The number of atoms contained in the molecule b. The number of different atoms contained in the molecule c. The number of molecules present d. The number of different molecules present c K 74 23. One type of chemical reaction that joins molecules together is called _____. a. acidification b. hydrolysis c. condensation d. compounding c K 75 24. Water is neutral and has a pH of _____. a. 0 b. 1 c. 7 d. 14 b A 75 25. The formula HCl tells you that this compound has _____. a. more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions b. more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions c. a pH of 7 d. a pH between 7 and 14 c A 75 26. As the pH of a glass of tomato juice decreases, it becomes _____. a. hydrophobic b. hydrophilic c. more acidic d. more basic b A 75 27. If the pH of one glass of lemonade is 4 and the pH of a second glass of lemonade is 5, the second glass of lemonade is _____ than the first glass. a. 2 times less acidic b. 10 times less acidic c. 2 times less basic d. 10 times less basic a K 76 28. What is a solution that reacts with both acids and bases to maintain a constant pH called? a. Buffer b. Lipid c. Barrier d. Liquid How Do Biological Molecules Form Cells, Tissues, Organs, and Organ Systems? (pp. 76-81) d K 76 29. The structures that carry out intracellular activities are called _____. a. ribosomes b. centrioles c. mitochondria d. organelles c K 76 30. Within the body’s cells, there are small membrane-bound compartments called _____ that carry out specialized functions that are critical for life. a. phospholipids b. functioning spaces c. organelles d. vesiculars a K 76 31. The environment inside of the cell is called the _____ environment. a. intracellular b. extercellular c. extracellular d. intercellular c K 76 32. Which of the cell transport mechanisms requires energy? a. Passive transport b. Osmosis c. Active transport d. Facilitated diffusion a K 77 33. Active transport mechanisms include those that are carrier mediated and _____ transport. a. vesicular b. extracellular c. luminal d. chemical d A 77 34. If the movement of molecules in the body requires ATP and a transport protein, the transport system is _____. a. facilitated diffusion b. osmosis c. passive transport d. carrier mediated b K 76 35. The three main types of passive transport mechanisms for control of movement of substances into and out of cells are simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and _____. a. active transport b. osmosis c. exocytosis d. endocytosis d K 76 36. Which mechanism enables substances to move through the cell membrane from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration without any energy expenditure? a. Equilibrium b. Vesicular transport c. Exocytosis d. Simple diffusion c K 76 37. What regulates the rate of facilitated diffusion? a. Net movement of water across the cell membrane b. Level of energy available to support the transport c. Membrane-bound transport protein d. Permeability of the cell membrane d K 76-77 38. The movement of water across cell membranes is carefully regulated by _____ within and surrounding the cell. a. adjusting the rates of facilitated diffusion b. controlling the intake of protein c. modifying active and vesicular transport d. concentrating various solutes c K 79 39. Tissues are composed of a group of _____ with similar form and function. a. atoms b. molecules c. cells d. organs b K 77 40. The process used to transport some molecules across cell membranes against the prevailing concentration gradient requires _____ and _____. a. ADP, ATP b. ATP, a transport protein c. osmosis, diffusion d. ADP, osmosis a A 77 41. The hormone insulin, which is produced by the cells of the pancreas, is released into the surrounding extracellular fluid by an energy-requiring process called _____. a. exocytosis b. secretion c. emission d. endocytosis c K 78 42. Which cellular organelles are responsible for converting the energy in glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids into ATP, a form of energy that the cells can use? a. Peroxisomes b. Lysosomes c. Mitochondria d. Ribosomes b K 78 43. DNA is contained primarily in the _____ of a cell. a. mitochondria b. nucleus c. cell membrane d. Golgi apparatus a K 79 44. Blood is a connective tissue made up of cells and a fluid called _____. a. plasma b. lymph c. serum d. water c K 80 45. Organs consist of _____. a. homogenous types of tissue b. two or more cell types linked through redox reactions c. two or more different types of tissue d. cells that share a common cell membrane d K 80 46. How many organ systems do humans have? a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11 b K 81 47. By detecting an imbalance, communicating information about this imbalance, and responding to this imbalance, the body is able to maintain _____. a. growth b. homeostasis c. mental acuity d. gastric motility a K 79 48. What is the term for the type of tissue in the human body that provides a protective layer on skin and the lining of body cavities? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Neural b K 80 49. Which type of tissue plays an important role in communications within the body? a. Connective b. Neural c. Muscle d. Epithelial b K 80, 81 50. What system controls physiological functions through production and release of hormones? a. Reproductive system b. Endocrine system c. Digestive system d. Muscular system How Does the Digestive System Break Down Food into Its Nutrient Components? (pp. 81-84) c K 81 51. The digestive system consists of the organs of the GI tract and _____ organs. a. digestive b. secretory c. accessory d. peristaltic b K 81 52. The accessory organs of the digestive system release a variety of _____ needed for digestion. a. electrolytes b. secretions c. acids d. impulses d K 81 53. The gastrointestinal tract has three functions, one of which is digestion. What are the other two? a. Chemical breakdown of food and transfer of nutrients to the body’s muscle tissue b. Physical breakdown of food and transfer of nutrients to the spinal column c. Secretion and egestion/excretion d. Absorption and egestion/excretion c K 81 54. The gastrointestinal tract consists of how many layers that carry out its functions? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 b K 81 55. The layers of the GI tract carry out its functions of motility, movement, _____. a. neural transmission, circulation, and aspiration b. secretion, communication, and protection c. contraction, communication, and circulation d. secretion, excretion, and fortification a K 81 56. The gastrointestinal tract can be thought of as a hollow tube that runs from the _____. a. mouth to the anus b. esophagus to the rectum c. stomach to the large intestine d. stomach to the small intestine a K 81 57. The accessory organs are organs that participate in digestion but are not part of the GI tract, and include the _____. a. salivary glands, pancreas, liver, and gallbladder b. appendix, liver, and gallbladder c. salivary glands, spleen, liver, and kidney d. pancreas, gallbladder, and kidney c K 83-84 58. Which of the following aids in the circulation of dietary fat away from the GI tract? a. Mucosa b. Muscularis c. Lymph d. Serosa d A 81 59. Maria was complaining of abdominal pain, bloating, and gas. The dietitian asked her if she was having any problems with egestion. The dietitian was asking her if she was having difficulty with _____. a. absorption of essential minerals such as iron and calcium b. gastric reflux c. digestion of foods containing more than 50% protein d. the process by which solid waste is removed from the body d K 84 60. What does the muscularis do? a. Stimulates the contraction of the muscles that control the beating of the heart b. Makes possible the voluntary muscle contractions required for movement c. Controls the contraction and expansion of the lungs d. Enables food to mix and move through the GI tract b K 82 61. The variety of secretions needed for digestion are produced and released from accessory organs and from specialized cells in the _____ of the GI tract. a. submucosa b. mucosal lining c. muscularis d. serosa How Do Gastrointestinal Motility and Secretions Facilitate Digestion? (pp. 84-87) d K 84 62. What is the approximate transit time for food to pass from the mouth to the anus? a. 6 - 12 hours b. 12 - 24 hours c. 18 - 36 hours d. 24 - 72 hours a K 84 63. Structures called _____ regulate the flow of material through the GI tract. a. sphincters b. enzymes c. hormones d. buffers b K 85 64. Of the two types of movement in the GI tract, which is the vigorous propulsion of food through the tract? a. Segmentation b. Peristalsis c. Impetus d. Contraction a K 85 65. The term “GI _____” refers to the mixing and propulsion of material by muscular contractions in the GI tract. a. motility b. activity c. hydrolysis d. circulation d K 84 66. What sphincter separates the esophagus and the stomach? a. Esophagealgastric b. Pyloric c. Nasopharynx d. Gastroesophageal d K 86 67. The secretions needed for digestion include water, acid, enzymes, and _____. a. blood b. lymph c. hydrolytes d. bicarbonate c K 86 68. Digestive enzymes break starch and protein into smaller components through the chemical process of _____. a. osmosis b. ectocytosis c. hydrolysis d. endocytosis a K 86 69. GI motility and the release of GI secretions are carefully regulated by _____. a. neural and hormonal signals b. cardiovascular circulation c. dietary and muscular signals d. lymphatic circulation c K 85 70. The food in the digestive tract is mixed and moved by way of muscular contractions called _____. a. contraction and relaxation b. propulsion and static c. segmentation and peristalsis d. contraction and propulsion b K 87 71. Stretching or distension in the walls of the GI tract is detected by _____. a. chemoreceptors b. mechanoreceptors c. stretchreceptors d. distoreceptors d A 87 72. Smelling cookies baking will likely make you hungry because the GI tract communicates with the _____ system. a. digestive b. muscular c. endocrine d. central nervous a K 87 73. Neural regulation of GI motility and the release of GI secretions involves both the central nervous system and the _____ nervous system. a. enteric b. muscular c. endocrine d. intracellular b K 84 74. Gastric relates to or pertains to the _____. a. esophagus b. stomach c. small intestine d. large intestine How Does the GI Tract Coordinate Functions to Optimize Digestion and Nutrient Absorption? (pp. 88-101) a K 88 75. Food undergoes partial physical and chemical breakdown in the _____. a. mouth b. esophagus c. stomach d. duodenum b K 82, 90 76. Jan is about to eat a slice of pizza. In what order will the pizza pass through the organs of her GI tract? a. Mouth, ileum, duodenum b. Stomach, duodenum, and large intestine c. Small intestine, stomach, and large intestine d. Jejunum, colon, and cecum c K 88 77. GI motility and the release of GI secretions are coordinated with the introduction of _____ into each of the regions of the GI tract. a. enzymes b. acids c. food d. bases d K 89 78. What is the anatomical birth defect that results in an opening between the oral and nasal cavities called? a. Dysphagia b. Parkinson’s disease c. Crohn’s disease d. Cleft palate b K 94 79. The rate of gastric motility and the release of gastric juice _____ when the food moves into the small intestine. a. increase significantly b. decrease c. remain steady d. increase slightly c K 97 80. Digestion in the small intestine is facilitated by secretions from the _____ and _____. a. mouth, stomach b. esophagus, kidney c. pancreas, gallbladder d. liver, stomach a A 88 81. While driving, you see an ad for your favorite fast food place and your stomach begins to growl. Which phase of digestion is occurring? a. Cephalic b. Gastric c. Neural d. Responsive d A 88 82. Which of the five tastes that humans can sense are vegetarians least likely to experience? a. Bitter b. Salty c. Sour d. Umami a K 89 83. When food is chewed and mixed with saliva in preparation for swallowing, what is the resulting substance called? a. Bolus b. Ball c. Mass d. Chyme c K 89-90 84. What is the narrow, muscular tube that connects the pharynx with the stomach called? a. Pyloric sphincter b. Ileocecal valve c. Esophagus d. Duodenum d A 90 85. Brit was eating quickly in order to get to her next class. Though she began to choke when she tried to swallow a large bite of her sandwich, her _____ covered the trachea during swallowing so that the sandwich did not go into the lungs. a. gastroesophageal sphincter b. pyrolic value c. esophagus d. epiglottis b K 90 86. Many nursing home residents have difficulty swallowing—a condition known as _____. a. aphasia b. dysphagia c. aphagia d. dysphasia b K 90 87. What controls the movement of food from the stomach into the duodenum? a. Secretin b. Pyloric sphincter c. Ileocecal valve d. Gastrin c K 91 88. What hormone is released when the food you have just eaten reaches your stomach? a. CCK b. Secretin c. Gastrin d. Insulin d K 90, 94 89. By the time food leaves the stomach it has mixed with gastric juice and has been transformed into a semi-liquid paste called _____. a. rugae b. gastrin c. pepsin d. chyme c K 91 90. Gastric pit cells that release their secretions into the blood are called _____ cells. a. exocrine b. parietal c. endocrine d. chief b K 91 91. What causes the release of hydrochloric acid, intrinsic factor, and enzymes in response to the presence of food in the stomach? a. Pepsin b. Gastrin c. Chyme d. Rugae d K 93 92. GERD occurs when the unprotected lining of the _____ is repeatedly exposed to gastric juice. a. mouth b. stomach c. heart d. esophagus b K 93 93. Which condition is characterized by the movement (reflux) of the stomach contents back into the esophagus? a. Peptic ulcer disease b. Gastroesophageal reflux disease c. Heartburn d. Gastritis d K 95 94. Peptic ulcers are caused by _____. a. stress/anxiety b. the rhino virus c. eating spicy foods d. H. pylori bacteria c K 94 95. One of the most important functions of cholecystokinin (CCK) is to _____. a. slow the release of bile b. regulate the movement of the epiglottis c. slow gastric emptying d. stimulate production of HCl b A 96 96. As a result of cancer, Mike had to have part of his cecum removed. Mike is probably at less risk for nutrient absorption problems than he would be if part of his _____ had been removed. a. stomach b. small intestine c. gallbladder d. rectum d K 96 97. The small intestine is about 1 inch in diameter and _____ long. a. 5 feet b. 10 feet c. 15 feet d. 20 feet a K 96 98. The small intestine is divided into three regions: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the _____. a. ileum b. cecum c. rectum d. anus c K 98 99. The absorptive surface of the small intestine is called the _____. a. plica circulares b. lacteal surface c. brush border d. gastric villus a K 99 100. Secretin signals the pancreas to release pancreatic juice, an alkaline solution consisting of water, various enzymes needed for digestion, and _____. a. sodium bicarbonate b. potassium chloride c. sodium chloride d. potassium bicarbonate c A 99 101. If Sean has his gallbladder removed, he could experience some problems digesting _____. a. carbohydrate b. vitamin C c. fat d. thiamin b K 99 102. Bile is reabsorbed through the ileum and returned to the _____. a. gallbladder b. liver c. pancreas d. small intestine a K 94, 99 103. Pancreatic enzymes and bile are released into the duodenum in response to _____. a. cholecystokinin (CCK) b. pancreatic amylase c. secretin d. pepsin d K 100 104. What traps nutrients and pulls them toward the enterocytes? a. Submucoa b. Basolateral membrane c. Endocytes d. Microvilli b K 100 105. The process whereby nutrients are transported across enterocytes and taken up into circulation is called _____. a. digestion b. absorption c. transfer d. reassignment a K 101 106. The extent to which a nutrient is absorbed is called its _____. a. bioavailability b. biosensitivity c. biophysiology d. bioretention a K 102 107. What causes the symptoms of celiac disease? a. An inflammatory response to a protein found in wheat and other grains b. H. pylori bacteria c. Structural abnormalities of the small intestine d. Relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter d K 99 108. The hepatic portal vein links the liver and the _____. a. pancreas b. stomach c. kidney d. intestine How Does the Body Circulate Nutrients and Eliminate Cellular Waste Products? (pp. 101-106) b K 101 109. Nutrients and oxygen are delivered to cells by the cardiovascular and _____ systems. a. biliary b. lymphatic c. portal d. renal c K 101 110. Water-soluble nutrients absorbed from the digestive tract are circulated directly to the _____. a. heart b. kidneys c. liver d. lymph c K 101-102 111. The exchange of materials, nutrients, and gases between the blood and the tissues is the primary function of the _____. a. arteries b. arterioles c. capillaries d. venules a K 101 112. The cardiovascular system consists of which two routes of circulation? a. Systemic and pulmonary b. Hepatic and portal c. Primary and secondary d. Cardio-thoracic and renal c K 104 113. The cellular waste products generated by metabolism include carbon dioxide, water, and _____. a. feces b. oxygen c. urea d. sweat d K 106 114. The _____ is/are responsible for removing urea from the body. a. lungs b. liver c. large intestine d. kidneys b K 104 115. The flow of blood between the heart and the lungs is referred to as _____. a. systemic circulation b. pulmonary circulation c. heart-lung circulation d. cardio-thoracic circulation d K 104 116. Fat-soluble molecules are absorbed into the _____ circulation. a. systemic b. pulmonary c. portal-hepatic d. lymphatic d K 105 117. The urinary system has three important functions: excretion, _____ and _____. a. selection, secretion b. detoxification, screening c. conservation, dialysis d. filtration, reabsorption a K 105 118. The functional units of the kidney are called _____. a. nephrons b. neutrons c. ureters d. urethras d K 105 119. Water and other essential substances are returned to the blood by the kidneys in a process called _____. a. absorption b. recirculation c. reduction d. reabsorption c K 104 120. What transports blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs? a. Pulmonary veins b. Lymphatic system c. Pulmonary arteries d. Venules d K 105 121. Urine leaves the kidneys via the _____ that empty into the bladder. a. renal ducts b. nephrons c. renal sphincters d. ureters b K 107 122. The juices that may prevent bacteria from adhering to the bladder lining and causing a urinary tract infection are _____. a. orange and apple b. cranberry and blueberry c. apricot and pineapple d. plum and guava What Is the Role of the Large Intestine? (pp. 106-111) a K 106-107 123. The appendix is attached to the first portion of the large intestine known as the _____. a. cecum b. colon c. anal sphincter d. ileocecal sphincter c K 108 124. Water and _____ are reabsorbed in the large intestine. a. vitamins b. proteins c. electrolytes d. lipids b K 109 125. IBD, which is characterized by inflammation of the lining of the GI tract, is classified as a(n) _____ disease. a. infectious b. autoimmune c. genetic d. ulcerative d K 109 126. Glenn has IBD. The dietitian will need to be vigilant since lack of appetite and _____ can cause weight loss. a. reflux b. decreased nutritional needs c. food allergies d. decreased absorption a K 109 127. Which of the following is true of IBS? a. There is no inflammation of the lining of the GI tract. b. If not treated promptly, it will progress to IBD. c. People with IBS have structural abnormalities of the colon. d. Emotional distress is the primary cause. a K 108 128. _____ in the large intestine help to break down undigested food residue. a. Bacteria b. Enzymes c. Acids d. Hormones c K 108 129. Vitamin _____ is produced by the intestinal bacteria. a. A b. D c. K d. E c K 110 130. _____ foods contain live bacterial cultures that colonize the colon and have health-promoting benefits. a. Microbiotic b. Prebiotic c. Probiotic d. Precursors a K 108 131. When material moves too quickly through the large intestine, this can result in _____, whereas _____ often results when the material moves too slowly. a. diarrhea, constipation b. constipation, diarrhea c. IBD, IBS d. IBS, IBD True/False Answer, level, page T K 69 1. The kidneys, lungs, and skin assist in eliminating potentially harmful metabolic wastes from the body. T K 71 2. Nutrients fuel the cells, tissues, and organs of the body. F K 72 3. Positively charged particles are called neutrons. T K 72 4. Positively charged ions are called cations, while negatively charged ions are called anions. F K 72 5. Uncharged neutrons and positively charged electrons are both housed in the nucleus of an atom. F K 72-73 6. The loss of 1 or more electrons is called reduction. T K 74 7. Condensation is one type of chemical reaction that joins molecules together. F K 75 8. The ionization of acid molecules is the basis for the pH scale. T K 75 9. A substance with a pH of 2 is more acidic than a substance that has a pH of 7. T K 76 10. Substances cross cell membranes by passive and active transport. F K 76 11. In the process called osmosis, solutes move across a selectively permeable membrane. F K 77 12. During endocytosis substances move from the intracellular into the extracellular environment. T K 78 13. ATP is generated in cellular structures called mitochondria. F K 79 14. Connective tissue provides a protective layer on body surfaces as well as a lining for body cavities, ducts, and organs. T K 81 15. Organs that make up the GI tract include the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. T K 81 16. The digestive tract contains four major tissue layers—the mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa. F K 84 17. One-way valves that regulate the flow of the luminal contents from one organ to the next are called controllers. T K 86 18. Digestive enzymes catalyze hydrolytic chemical reactions that break chemical bonds by the addition of water. T A 87 19. Mechanoreceptors detect stretching or distension in the walls of the GI tract. F K 88 20. The gastric phase of digestion begins when someone puts food in his/her mouth. F K 88 21. It is difficult for you to taste food when you have nasal congestion because the olfactory cells account for approximately 20% of taste. F K 84, 90 22. The gastroesophageal sphincter regulates the movement of food from the stomach into the duodenum. F K 84 23. In the GI tract, there is a single sphincter that regulates the flow of the luminal contents from one organ to the next. T K 91 24. Gastrin stimulates exocrine cells to release digestive enzymes from the chief cells. F K 93 25. A peptic ulcer results when the unprotected lining of the esophagus is repeatedly exposed to gastric juice. T K 93 26. The primary cause of GERD is the relaxation of the gastroesophageal sphincter. T K 94 27. Large meals leave your stomach at a faster rate than small meals. T K 100 28. Nutrient absorption includes both the entry into and the exit out of the enterocyte. F K 96 29. The small intestine is made up of three regions—the duodenum, the jejunum, and the rectum. F K 98 30. The presence of fat-containing chyme in the stomach signals the release of CCK from the small intestine. T K 100 31. Only water and alcohol are absorbed to any significant extent by the stomach. F K 102 32. Celiac disease is an inflammatory response to a specific protein called glycogen. F K 101 33. Once water-soluble nutrients enter the bloodstream, they circulate directly to cells throughout the body. F K 76 34. The fluid that surrounds cells is called the intracellular fluid. T K 104 35. The lymphatic system transports fat-soluble nutrients away from the GI tract. F K 105 36. Using a recycling process called absorption, the kidneys are able to reclaim substances such as amino acids, glucose, and other important nutrients that would otherwise be excreted in the urine. T K 107 37. The bacterium Escherichia coli (E. coli) is the most common cause of urinary tract infections. T K 108 38. In the large intestine, slow, churning segmentation movements called haustral contractions help expose the undigested food res