Private Pilot Stage 1 Exam Questions and Answers Already Passed
Private Pilot Stage 1 Exam Questions and Answers Already Passed What are the characteristics of a monocoque airplane structure? Almost all structural loads are carried by the outer skin of the airplane. Which control surfaces are usually located on the empennage? Rudder, Elevator, Stabilator What condition must be present for carburetor ice to form? High relative humidity A power loss occurs when you apply carburetor heat because less dense air is entering the engine. Detonation can be described as fuel in the cylinders exploding instead of burning smoothly. If the engine magneto switch is turned to the "OFF" position, but the engine continues to run, the probable cause is a broken magneto wire. Excessive cylinder head and engine oil temperature can be caused by using a lower than normal fuel grade. The three pressure instruments connected to the pitot-static system are the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator According to the markings on the accompanying airspeed indicator, what is the maximum speed with flaps fully extend? 85 knots Assume that you land at an airport with the current altimeter set to 29.92 instead of the current setting of 30.00. What will the altimeter read if the field elevation is 2,000 feet MSL? 1920 feet MSL The turn coordinator provides a direct indication of aircraft rate of turn. The attitude indicator reflects the airplane's movement about the longitudinal and lateral axes How often should you check the heading indicator and align it with the magnetic compass? Every 15 minutes After departing runway 36, you make a left turn to a heading of 180. If the magnetic compass initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction, you should know that his reaction is normal for all magnetic compasses under similar conditions. What two conditions normally cause an increase in lift? Increased angle of attack and increased speed. What causes the separation of air over the wing during a stall? The angle formed by the wing cord line and relative wind is excessive, regardless of the airspeed or attitude. How are the lift and drag components of the wings affected when you lower the flaps? Lift decreases and drag increases Wingtip vortices contribute to the production of induced drag. What are the control characteristics of an aircraft with the CG forward of limits? Very stable pitch, inadequate elevator control for landing, longer takeoff run, and greater nose-over tendency Dihedral is used to stabilize the airplane about the longitudinal axis. P-factor is one of the forces that caused the airplane to yaw to the left. What is the primary forces that causes an airplane to turn? Horizontal component of lift The recommend method of scanning for other aircraft during the day is to use a sieres or short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 sector of the viewing area. The most practical way to compensate for blind spots in aircraft design while climbing or descending is to make shallow S-turns. Except when necessary for takeoff and landing when you fly over congested areas, you must maintain an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Refer to the illustration and determine the appropriate landing runway and traffic pattern direction. Runway 36, right-hand traffic The purpose of a displaced threshold is to cause aircraft to touch down farther down the runway. A large X placed near the runway threshold indicates the runway is closed. An airport beacon within two while flashes and one green flash indicates a military airport. When using two-bar VASI lights, what will you see when you are on the proper glide slope? Near bar white, far bar red. This symbol ( ) is used on sectional charts to represent an airport which has a hard surfaced runway between 1,500 and 8, 069 feet long. What is the minimum ceiling requirement for VFR operations in the airspace represented in C? 1,000 feet What requirements must be met before you enter the airspace represented in D? Two-way radio communication What are the basic VFR weather minimums, if any, for flight at 6,500 feet MSL in the airspace shown by A? Clear of clouds with three statue miles visibility What action, if any, is required when you are departing a satellite airport located within Class C airspace? Contact ATC as soon as practicable. What are the special VFR weather minimums for flight within Class D airspace? Clear of the clouds with one statue mile visibility On a sectional char, what does the notation "No SVFR" above the airport name indicate? No special VFR operations are permitted at anytime What VFR weather minimums are required to take off from Salina Airport? Visibility three miles and a ceiling of 1,000 feet, or special VFR. Penetration of active warning areas by nonparticipating aircraft should be avoided because of unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. A controller may issue a safety alert to an aircraft under his control when that aircraft is unsafe proximately to terrain, obstructions, or another aircraft When in radar contact, who is responsible for VFR aircraft separation? Pilot in Command When approaching an airport with an operating control tower, you must contact the tower before entering the class D airspace At non tower airports without FSS or UNICOM, the CTAF usually is 122.8 MHz The VHF emergency frequency monitored by most ground facilities is 121.5 MHz When you use the work "PAN-PAN" in a radio message, it indicates you have an urgent situation requiring priority on the radian frequency and timely, but not immediate assistance. What frequency should you use when to announce your position during an approach for a landing in TAOS Municipal? 122.8 MHz The length of the longest runway at Portland International Airport is 11,000 ft When departing to the north, the proper frequency for departure control is 133.0. What information concerning Greater Cincinnati Airport in Covington, Kentucky, is contained in the accompanying NOTAM excerpt? the airport has an experimental lighting system. FAA Advisory Circulars prove what type of information. Non-regulatory, but necessary for good operation practices
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