NURS 6630N Final Exam
NURS 6630N Week 11 FINAL EXAM
NURS-6630N: Psychopharmacologic Approaches
to Treatment of Psychopathology.
Latest New Versions
76 Q & A in Each Version, Verified and 100 % Correct|
Best document for Exam
Absolute Satisfaction
, NURS6630 Final Exam
QUESTION 1
What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to
manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity?
A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs
QUESTION 2
The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic
behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help
temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism?
A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics C.
Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics
QUESTION 3
The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive
behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of
atypical antipsychotics?
A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy. B. The doses are based on
achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy. C. The doses are based on achieving
60% D2 receptor occupancy. D. None of the above.
, QUESTION 4
Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the
patient with psychosis and aggression?
A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate the psychotic
symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy. D. There is no
documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent.
QUESTION 5
The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the
PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient?
A. Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS B. Prescribing the patient 12 mg/dail
C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days D. Writing a prescription for a higher
dose of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D2 receptor occupancy
QUESTION 6
The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and
impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will
the PMHNP select? A. Lithium (Lithane) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Valproate (Depakote) D.
Topiramate (Topamax)
NURS 6630N Week 11 FINAL EXAM
NURS-6630N: Psychopharmacologic Approaches
to Treatment of Psychopathology.
Latest New Versions
76 Q & A in Each Version, Verified and 100 % Correct|
Best document for Exam
Absolute Satisfaction
, NURS6630 Final Exam
QUESTION 1
What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to
manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity?
A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs
QUESTION 2
The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic
behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help
temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism?
A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics C.
Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics
QUESTION 3
The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive
behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of
atypical antipsychotics?
A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy. B. The doses are based on
achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy. C. The doses are based on achieving
60% D2 receptor occupancy. D. None of the above.
, QUESTION 4
Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the
patient with psychosis and aggression?
A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate the psychotic
symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy. D. There is no
documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent.
QUESTION 5
The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the
PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient?
A. Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS B. Prescribing the patient 12 mg/dail
C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days D. Writing a prescription for a higher
dose of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D2 receptor occupancy
QUESTION 6
The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and
impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will
the PMHNP select? A. Lithium (Lithane) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Valproate (Depakote) D.
Topiramate (Topamax)
