DANB General Chairside - Exam Questions and Answers 2023/2024 Graded A+

DANB General Chairside - Exam Questions and Answers 2023/2024 Graded A+. General Supervision - ANSWER level of supervision in which the dental auxiliary performs delegated functions according to the instructions of the dentist, who is not necessarily physically present. implied contract - ANSWER contract that is established by actions, not words. Res Gestae - ANSWER latin for things done. Statements made by a person present at the time of an alleged negligent act that are admissible as evidence in a court of law. Res Ipsa Loquitur - ANSWER The thing speaks for itself. Respondeat Superior - ANSWER latin for let the master answer. Employer is liable for acts of the employee. Tort law - ANSWER involving an act that brings harm to a person or damage to property. Unprofessional negligence - ANSWER malpractice is...? Contributory Negligence - ANSWER a patient breaking an appointment may be interpreted as? Criminal and Civil Law - ANSWER the two types of statutory law. Cementoclases - ANSWER cells that resorb cementum. Clinical crown - ANSWER the portion of the tooth that is visible in the oral cavity. Dental papilla - ANSWER gingivae between the teeth. Deposition - ANSWER the process by which the body adds new bone. Embryo - ANSWER an organism in the earliest stages of development. Hydroxyapatite - ANSWER mineral compound that is the principal inorganic component of bone and teeth. Odontoblasts - ANSWER cells that form dentin Odontogenesis - ANSWER formation of new teeth. Osteoblasts - ANSWER cells that form bone. Filiform papillae - ANSWER threadlike elevations that cover most of the tongue. Cingulum - ANSWER raised,rounded area on the cervical third of the lingual surface. Cusp of carabelli - ANSWER what is found on the maxillary first molars? Mutans Streptococci and Lactobacilli - ANSWER the two specific groups of bacteria in the mouth that are responsible for caries. Mutans Streptococci - ANSWER bacteria found in plaque. Lactobacilli - ANSWER this bacteria in the mouth indicates a high sugar intake. True - ANSWER mothers are the most common source of disease causing MS because of close and frequeny contact. Pellicle - ANSWER colonies of bacteria embedded in an adhesive substance. Calculus - ANSWER calcium and phosphate salts in saliva that become mineralized and adhere to tooth surfaces. True. - ANSWER No tissue recession or loss of connective tissue or bone is associated with gingivitis. other types of gingivitis are associated with puberty, pregnancy and the use of birth control medications. True - ANSWER Normal probing will be 0-4 mm. True! - ANSWER If less than 30% of sites in the mouth are affects, the disease is considered localized and vice versa. 24 Hours - ANSWER How long does plaque take to form again after being removed? Daily - ANSWER over the counter topical fluoride rinses are designed to be used how much? Stillman - ANSWER brushing technique that has half in sulcus and half on gums. False - ANSWER all bottled water contains fluoride. Topical - ANSWER the major effect of fluoridated water in the prevention of caries. Immediately After Brushing and Flossing - ANSWER the best time to use a fluoridated mouth rinse is... 16 - ANSWER The recommended age to cease fluoride for those who do not have it. True!! - ANSWER No dental floss works better than another. Complete protein - ANSWER a well-balanced mixture of all eight essential amino acids. Vitamin C Deficiency - ANSWER swelling gums and bleeding, slow wound healing, fatigue, depression, and poor digestion can be the result of: True ! - ANSWER Vitamins do not supply energy to the body but they do release energy. How long it stays in the mouth - ANSWER a major factor in determining the carcinogenicity of a carbohydrate is to see.... Vitamin D - ANSWER a good source for this vitamin includes fish, sunlight and butter. Saliva - ANSWER dilutes and removes acid components from dental plaque. If it is thick it is less effective. Neutralizes acids. Saliva - ANSWER contains calcium, phosphate, and fluoride. It keeps calcium in the mouth, ready to be used during remineralization. True!! - ANSWER A good flow of saliva is necessary to control caries. If salivary function is reduced for any reason, such as illness, medication or radiation therapy, the teeth are at increased risk for decay. Schedule II Drugs - ANSWER these drugs cannot be renewed and have limited medical use, high risk for abuse and high risk for physical dependence. Schedule V Drugs - ANSWER some of these drugs don't even need a prescription. Analgesic Medications - ANSWER are prescribed for the relief of acute pain, post operative pain, and or chronic pain. This type of drug lessens the sensory function of the brain by blocking pain receptors. Nonopioid Analgesics - ANSWER includes the nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol), ibuprofen (advil, Motrin) and aspirin. Indicated for mild to moderate pain. Opioid Analgesics - ANSWER are prescribed for moderate to moderately severe pain. The most common type of drug prescribed is codeine. Schedule II drugs. Penicillin - ANSWER one of the most important antibiotics. Erythromycin - ANSWER the drug of choice when pencillin is contraindicated. Chlorhexidine - ANSWER is an antibiotic that is used to control plaque and gingivitis in the mouth or in periodontal pockets. Tetracycline - ANSWER can be used in combination with surgery and other therapies or may be given alone to reduce or temporarily eliminate the bacteria associated with periodontal disease, to suppress the destruction of the tooth's attachment to the bone or to reduce the pain of canker sores. Edema - ANSWER inflammation and swelling. Streptococccus Mutans - ANSWER the main cause (bacteria) of dental decay. Aluminum Oxide paste - ANSWER to polish resin. Abfraction - ANSWER loss of tooth structure caused by occlusal forces such as bruxism. Abrasion - ANSWER Loss of tooth structure due to mechanical action of a foreign element, such as a hard bristle toothbrush or a lip piercing. Erosion - ANSWER Loss of tooth structure due to chemicals. Bass Method - ANSWER brush placed directly into the gingival sulcus at a 45 degree angle. Stillman's Method - ANSWER the brush is placed at a 45 degree angle and half on the gingiva and half in the sulcus. Shock Symptoms - ANSWER Tachycardia, weak pulse, confusion, loss of consciousness, dizziness, weakness, thirst, nausea, cool clammy skin, pale skin, cyanosis, hypotension, feeling of "doom" Shock Treatment - ANSWER Assess responsiveness, CABs, & V/S Control bleeding Place supine/reclined & keep warm (blanket) Oxygen 15 lpm & NPO Optional - may elevate legs Heart Attack/Angina Symptoms - ANSWER Chest pain/pressure (tightness, squeezing) substernal pain radiating to arms, jaw, back, N/V, diaphoresis, dyspnea Dyspnea - ANSWER difficult or labored breathing. Heart Attack / Angina Treatment - ANSWER Assess responsiveness, CABs, & V/S Place in position of comfort, usually seated Oxygen (15 lpm) if O2Sat <94% Aspirin (160-325 mg PO) Assist with patient 's medications Cardiac Arrest Symptoms - ANSWER Unresponsive, no pulse, no respirations Cardiac Arrest Treatment - ANSWER Place patient supine on floor & call for help CABs Apply AED (if available) CPR with BVM/oxygen Assist dentist with emergency medications Ashtma - ANSWER Chronic disease Causes reversible bronchospasm Narrowing of airways due to inflammation, mucus secretion, & bronchoconstriction Triggered by anxiety, exercise, allergens Status Asthmaticus - ANSWER unbroken asthma attacks. Asthma Symptoms - ANSWER Difficulty breathing, coughing, wheezing, anxiety, unable to speak more than a few words, carry inhaler (Ventolin, Azmacort, Theo-Dur, Proventil) Asthma Treatment - ANSWER Assess responsiveness, CABs, & V/S Place in position of comfort Oxygen 2-6 lpm O2 by N/C titrated to SpO2 > 94% (may not tolerate a mask) Operator's Zone - ANSWER 7 to 12 o clock for a right handed. Transfer Zone - ANSWER 4 to 7 o clock for a right handed. Operator Zone - ANSWER 12 to 5 o clock for a left handed. Basic Set up - ANSWER mirror, explorer, cotton forceps (pliers). Spoon Excavator - ANSWER used for removal of soft dentin, debris and decay from the tooth. Hoe - ANSWER used to prepare the tooth and to plane the walls and floors of the tooth preparation with a push-pull action. Chisel - ANSWER are most often used to break down the enamel margin of the tooth preparation, to form sharp lines and point angles, and to place retention grooves. Hatches - ANSWER used to cut enamel and to smooth the walls and floors of the tooth preparation. gingival margin trimmers - ANSWER used to cut enamel and to place bevels along the gingival enamel margins and to access distal and mesial areas. Burnishers - ANSWER used to smooth the surface of a freshly placed amalgam restoration. Woodson - ANSWER one end is a paddle that is used for carrying dental materials to prepare tooth structure and the other resembles a condenser. Straight attachment - ANSWER is most commonly used for laboratory procedures, to trim provisionals and additional acrylic prostheses made outside of the mouth. Contra-angle attachment - ANSWER this attachment holds latch type rotary instruments, endo files, prophylaxis cups and mandrels. 169 - ANSWER Tapered fissure plain cut. 699 - ANSWER tapered fissure cross cut. 330 - ANSWER Pear. Initial entry into tooth structure. Wheel Shaped Bur - ANSWER is used for anterior crown preparations and can be used to adjust and shape occlusal surfaces. Acrylic Bur - ANSWER the bur most commonly used in the laboratory. Short acting local anesthetic - ANSWER an anesthetic that can last from 60 to 180 minutes. Intermediate acting local anesthetic - ANSWER an anesthetic that can last from 120 to 240 minutes. this is the most common. Topical Anesthetic - ANSWER should remain on the site for a minimum of 15 to 30 seconds and a maximum of 1 to 2 minutes for optimal results. Vasoconstrictors - ANSWER Epinephrine, levonorderfin and neo-cobefrin are.... Anterior Palatine nerve - ANSWER provides anesthesia in the posterior portion of the hard palate. Nasopalatine nerve block - ANSWER which produces anesthesia in the anterior hard palate. Local infiltration - ANSWER is completed by injecting into a small, isolated area. Field block - ANSWER refers to the injection of anesthetic near a larger terminal nerve branch. When two or three teeth are being restored. Nerve Block - ANSWER anesthesia for quadrant dentistry. Inferior alveolar block - ANSWER the patient will experience numbness over half of the lower jaw including tongue and lip. incisve nerve block - ANSWER given in the mental foramen and numb the anterior mandibular teeth and premolars. Hypervenilation - ANSWER plenty of oxygen but not enough carbon dioxide. Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis - ANSWER Long term disease from abuse of lung tissue Smoking, toxic fumes Causes overproduction of mucus Destroys bronchioles & alveoli Patients know of their condition and may keep their medication & oxygen close by Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis Symptoms - ANSWER Pink puffer vs. Blue Bloater" SOB, wheezing, coughing, anxiety, unable to speak clearly Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis Treatment - ANSWER Assess responsiveness, CABs, & V/S Place in position of comfort Oxygen 2-6 lpm O2 by N/C titrated to SpO2 > 94% (may not tolerate a mask) Hyperventilation - ANSWER Period of rapid & deep breathing, often in response to pain, anxiety, or stress (generally benign) Plenty of oxygen, but removes too much carbon dioxide Can also be caused by dangerous conditions - pulmonary embolism, diabetic ketoacidosis, stroke Hyperventilation Symptoms - ANSWER Rapid, deep breathing; tingling sensation in face & hands; cramping in hands & feet; chest pain Hyperventilation Treatment - ANSWER Assess responsiveness, CABs, & V/S Place in position of comfort Talk to patient & encourage to breathe slowly through nose; get patient to talk to you Oxygen (by mask) DO NOT have patient breathe into a paper bag Seizures - ANSWER Sudden change in sensation, behavior, or movement from electrical discharge in the brain Types - grand mal, petit mal, partial Seizure Causes - ANSWER Causes - epilepsy, stroke, brain tumor or injury, hypoxia, fever, hypoglycemia, infection, metabolic imbalances, drugs, alcohol