ANCC FNP Exam Practice Questions With Verified Answers - Latest Update 2023/2024 (GRADED A+)

The positive signs for pregnancy include: A. palpation of the fetus and auscultation of fetal heart tones by the NP B: palpation of the fetus and a positive quantitative serum pregnancy test C: Fetal heart tones and a positive quantitative serum pregnancy test D: fetal heart tones and feeling of movement of the fetus by the mother: Palpation of the fetus and Auscultation of the fetal heart tones. 12. Chadwick's Sign is characterized by: A: softening of the cervix B: Blue coloration of the cervix and vagina C: softening of the uterine isthmus D: nausea and vomiting during the first trimester of pregnancy: Blue coloration of the vagina and cervix 13. Rovsing's Sign is associated with which of the following? A: an acute abdomen, such as during a ruptured appendix B: knee instability C: Damage to the meniscus of the knee D: Acute cholelithiasis: An acute abdomen such as during a ruptured appendix 14. a patient is positive for anti-HCV (hepatitis C virus Antibody). WHat is the next step to further evaluate this patient? A: refer the patient to a gastroenterologist B order a hepatitis C RNA test C. order a hepatitis B comprehensive panel D. The pt is immune to hep C and no further testing is indicated: Order a hepatitis C RNA test 15. During a routine physical exam of an elderly woman, a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctivia on the temporal side is noted to be encroaching on the cornea. She denies any eye pain or visual changes. Which of the following is most likely? A: corneal Arcus B: pterygium C: pinguecula D: chalazion: Pterygium 16. A young primagravida reports to you that she is starting to feel the baby's movements in her uterus. This is considered to be which of the following? A: presumptive sign 3 / 9 B: probable sign C: positive sign D possible sign: presumptive sign 17. Which of the following viral infections is associated with occasional abnormal forms of lymphocytes during an acute infection? A: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) B epstein-barr virus (EBV) C: Human papillomavirus (HPV) D: coxsackievirus: Epstein-Barr virus EBV 18. What does a potassium hydroxide (KOH) prep help the nurse practitioner diagnose? A: Herpes zoster infections B: Fungal infections C: Herpes simplex infections D: Viral infections: Fungal infections 19. A menopausal woman with osteopenia is attending a dietary education class. Which of the following foods are recommended? A: yogurt and sardines B: spinach and red meat C: Cheese and red meat D: low-fat cheese and whole grain: Yogurt and sardines 20. a patient who has been prescribed warfarin sodium (Coumadin) is advised to avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables because: A: the high vitamin K level will decrease the INR B: they have too much ascorbic acid, which can interact with the medicine C: the high-fiber content will decrease the absorption of the warfarin (coumadin) D: The vitamins in the vegetables will bind with, and inactivate, the warfarin (Coumadin): The high vitamin K levels will decrease the INR 21. You note a HIGH pitched and BLOWING pansystolic murmur while assessing a 70-year old male patient. It is a grade 2/6 and is best heard at the apical area. Which of the following is most likely? A: ventricular Septal Defect B: Tricuspid regurgitation C: Mitral regurgitation D: mitral stenosis: Mitral regurgitation 4 / 9 22. you are reviewing a pap smear result for a 25-year old woman. Which of the following cells should be obtained in a pap smear sample to be classified as a satisfactory specimen? A: clue cells and endometrial cells B: vaginal cells and cervical cells C: squamous epithelial cells and endocervical cells D: leukocytes and RBC's: Squamous epithelial cells and endocervical cells 23. Koilonychia is associated with which of the following conditions? A: lead poisoning B: beta thalassemia trait C: B12 deficiency anemia D: Iron-deficiency anemia: Iron-deficiency anemia 24. Heberden's nodes are commonly found in which of the following diseases? A: rheumatoid arthritis B: Degenerative Joint disease C: Psoriatic arthritis D: septic arthritis: Degenerative Joint disease (OA) 25. Swim therapy (aqua therapy) for a 13-year old with cerebral palsy is an example of: A: primary prevention B: Secondary prevention C: tertiary prevention D: health prevention: Tertiary Prevention 26. A small abscess on a hair follicle on the eyelid is called: A: hordeolum B: Pterygium C: Pinguecula D: ptosis: hordeolum 27. Beta Thalassemia minor is considered a: A: macrocytic anemia B: normocytic anemia C: microcytic anemia D: hemolytic anemia: microcytic anemia 28. A bulla is defined as: A: A solid nodule less than 1cm in size B: a superficial vesicle filled with serous fluid greater than 1cm in size 5 / 9 C: a maculopapular lesion D: a shallow ulcer: A superficial vesicle filled with serous fluid greater than 1cm in size 29. All of the following findings are associated with the secondary stage of an infection by the organism Treponema pallidum except: A: condyloma acuminata B: maculopapular rash of the palms and soles C: lymphadenopathy D: condyloma lata: Condyloma acuminata 30. You note bony nodules at the proximal interphalangeal joints on both the hands of your 65 yr old female pt. Which of the following is most likely? A. Bouchard's node B. Herberden's node C. Osteoarthritic nodules D. Tophi deposits: Bouchard's nodes 31. an asthmatic exacerbation is characterized by all of the following symptoms except: A: tachycardia B: severe wheezing C: Chronic coughing D: tachypnea: Chronic Coughing 32. while assessing for a cardiac murmur, the first time that a thrill can palpated is at: A: grade 2 B: grade 3 C: Grade 4 D: grade 5: Grade 4 33. Podagra is associated with which of the following? A) RA B) Gout C) Osteoarthritis D) Septic arthritis: Gout 34. Which type of hepatitis virus infection is more likely to result in chronic hepatitis and increased risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma?: Both Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C 35. A medium-pitched mid systolic murmur is best heard at the right second ICS. It radiates to the NECK. Which of the following is correct? 6 / 9 A: aortic stenosis B: pulmonic stenosis C: aortic regurgitation D: mitral stenosis:: Aortic Stenosis 36. What is the caloric content of infant formula and breast milk? A: 10kcal/30ml B: 15kcal/30ml C: 20kcal/30ml D: 25kcal/30ml: 20kcal/30ml 37. A patient who recently returned from a vacation in Latin America complains of a severe headache and stiff neck that were accompanied by a high fever for the past 12 hours. While examing the pt, the NP flexes both the pts hips and legs and then tells the pt to straighten them against resistance. The name of this test is: A: kernig's maneuver B: Brudzinski's maneuver C: Murphy's sign D: Homan's sign: Kernigs maneuver 38. RhoGAM's mechanism of action:: destruction of Rh-positive fetal red blood cells that are present in the mother's circulatory system. It is given to Rh negative mothers during the 28th week of pregnancy. 39. Which of the following findings is associated with thyroid hypofunction? A: graves disease B Eye disorder C Thyroid Storm D Myxedema: Myxedema 40