DANB General Chairside Assisting Exam 2 Correct 100%

1. During which stage of tooth development do the teeth and the dental tissues fully mineralize into their final forms? a. Bud stage. b. Maturation stage. c. Apposition stage. d. Cap stage. - Answer B 2. What is the name given to the permanent teeth that grow in and replace the primary teeth in their specific locations? a. Succedaneous teeth. b. Deciduous teeth. c. Tooth buds. d. Exfoliated teeth. - Answer A 3. Which of the following is considered the most abundant mineral component found in the enamel portion of a tooth? a. Lamellae. b. Enamel prisms. c. Osteoblasts. d. Hydroxyapatite. - Answer D 4. Which of the following choices is NOT a function of the periodontal ligament? a. To protect and support each tooth in the tooth socket. b. To provide nutrients to the tooth and surrounding tissues. c. To protect the tooth from excessive nerve stimuli. d. To supply fibroblasts to the ligaments. - Answer C 5. The biting surface of the posterior teeth is called the: a. occlusal surface. b. incisal surface. c. lingual surface. d. mesial surface. - Answer A 6. When using the Universal numbering system, the maxillary left first molar is tooth number a. 30. b. 3. с. 14. d. 19. - Answer C 7. What is the name given to the surface of each tooth that is found furthest from the patient's midline? a. Buccal. b. Mesial. c. Distal. d. Lingual. - Answer C 8. When documenting progress notes into a patient's chart, which of the following is correct? a. The patient must sign the progress notes after they have been completed. b. The entry must be signed and dated by the dental team member who recorded the entry. c. The entry may be entered in blue ink only, according to national guidelines. d. If a mistake is made, it must be erased and re-recorded by the dental team member. - Answer B 9. What type of data will be found in a patient's clinical chart? a. Patient address and phone number. b. Copayment amount. c. Insurance coverage. d. Procedures being performed. - Answer D 10. Which of the following demonstrates the correct way to take a patient's radial pulse prior to delivering dental treatment? a. Ensure that the arm is at or below the Jevel of the heart. b. The patient should have the arm tucked in a flexed position as the pulse is being taken. c. Have the patient stand up for maximum blood flow as the pulse is being measured. d. The dental team member should palpate the pulse for a full two minutes to obtain an accurate reading. - Answer A 11. When measuring a patient's blood pressure, it is important to perform which of the following steps? a. Have the patient stand up and rest the arm on a secure platform. b. Center the cuff above the elbow and inflate the cuff slowly. c. Place the stethoscope over the radial artery and hold it in place securely with your hand. d. Inflate the cuff halfway and then release to capture recording. - Answer B 12. When looking in a patient's mouth, the dental assistant notices that the patient's maxillary lateral incisors are missing along with the first premolars. What is the name of this condition? a. Dens in dente. b. Fusion. c. Macrodontia. d. Anodontia. - Answer D 13. Which of the following types of decay is commonly found in the elderly population due to the recession of gum tissue and bone loss? a. Root surface decay. b. Incisal decay. c. Mesial decay. d. Lingual surface decay. - Answer A 14. Which of the following conditions is a result of ingesting too much fluoride? a. Mulberry molars. b. Mottled enamel. с. Нурodontia. d. Macroglossia. - Answer B 15. Which of the following items is the most cariogenic? a. Watermelon. b. Soda/pop. c. Raisins. d. Potatoes. - Answer C 16. Why would a dental assistant use a disclosing tablet prior to reviewing proper personal oral hygiene instructions with a patient? a. To determine which teeth have restorations on them. b. To demonstrate areas of decay to the patient. c. To disclose areas of the teeth that may have heavy calculus on them. d. To help identify areas where there is soft, sticky plaque attached to the teeth. - Answer D 17. What is the main goal of a plaque control program? a. To have the patient come into the office once per month to disclose the teeth and see the progress of personal oral hygiene. b. To develop a technique to thoroughly remove plaque from the teeth at least once per day. c. To experiment with different interdental cleansing aids to determine what best removes plaque from patient's teeth. d. To design a brushing and flossing schedule to prevent the build-up of calculus. - Answer B 18. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding soft drink consumption? a. Diet soda is better for the teeth because it does not produce an acidic environment in the oral cavity compared to regular soda. b. The sugar in the sodas combines with the bacteria in the mouth causing acid to form. c. Soft drink consumption has been directly linked to dental decay, diabetes, and obesity. d. Sodas have no nutritional value, with all of their calories coming from the sugars found in them. - Answer A 19. Following an extraction, what instructions should the dental assistant give the patient in regards to brushing and flossing the teeth? a. Use an extra-soft bristled toothbrush and brush the surgical site very lightly to remove food debris and bacteria from the area. b. Instruct the patient to place a 2x2 piece of gauze over the area and then proceed to brush as normal and remove the gauze when finished to prevent infection. c. Brush and floss the other areas of the mouth as usual, but avoid the extraction site. d. The patient should brush and floss all areas of the mouth as he normally does to ensure that the bacterial content in the mouth is kept at a minimum to prevent infection. - Answer C 20. Which of the following interdental items is used to clean areas in the oral cavity that are difficult to reach with a toothbrush? a. End-tuft brush b. Bridge threaders c. Perio-Aid d. Rubber-tipped stimulator - Answer A 21. Which of the following is a main function of saliva in the oral cavity? a. Saliva helps to remove excess fluoride from the oral b. Saliva reduces the amount of acid produced by cariogenic foods. cavity, preventing fluorosis. c. Saliva speeds up the process of demineralization d. Saliva helps to speed up the removal of food from the teeth. that occurs when foods are eaten. - Answer D 22. What type of occlusion occurs when the jaws are closed and the occluding surfaces of the teeth are together in a way that produces maximum stable contact? a. Functional occlusion. b. Centric occlusion. c. Malocclusion. d. Distoclusion. - Answer B 23. When instructing a patient on how to care for dentures, which of the following must be avoided in order to prevent damage to the new dentures? a. Remove the dentures at least once per day and rinse the oral cavity. b. Use a denture brush to clean all areas of the denture. c. Use hot water to soak the denture for one hour per day to allow for proper disinfection. d. Store the dentures in a moist container to prevent them from drying out. - Answer C 24. A patient has just had a new permanent crown placed on tooth #16. What post-treatment instructions should be given? a. Brush and floss the new crown and surrounding teeth carefully each day. b. Use a mouth rinse with fluoride to improve the setting strength of the dental cement used on the crown. c. Avoid flossing in the area of the new crown for one week to allow the cement to settle and prevent the crown from coming off. d. Advise the patient to not chew anything sticky for five days to prevent the crown from coming off in the mouth. - Answer A 25. The correct treatment in response to a patient who is hyperventilating is to: a. administer oxygen. b. have the patient cup her hands over her mouth and rebreathe her exhaled air. c. lie the patient down and place her in the Trendelenburg position. d. have the patient take rapid shallow breaths to get more fresh air into the lungs. - Answer B 26. Which of the following choices is the best treatment in response to a patient who is feeling faint at the dental office? a. Place him in the Trendelenburg position and administer oxygen. b. Have the patient sit up and close his eyes and take slow deep breaths c. Administer nitroglycerin under the patient's tongue. d. Have the patient use the epinephrine pen in his thigh. - Answer A 27. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a brain disorder that causes irregular output leading to convulsions? a. Rheumatic fever. b. Stroke. c. Epilepsy. d. Diabetes mellitus. - Answer C 28. Which of the following describes an aura that is commonly experienced prior to a seizure? a. The process of a patient becoming limp, clammy, and exhausted b. Temporary cessation of breathing. c. Muscular rigidity and rotation of the head and eyes in one direction. d. A strange sensation demonstrated by a certain taste, smell, sound, or sight - Answer D 29. Which of the following terms can be defined as profuse sweating? a. Incontinence. b. Diaphoresis. c. Hyperglycemia. d. Polydipsia. - Answer B 30. Which of the following choices best describes diabetes mellitus type 1? a. The destruction of the thyroid gland leading to insufficient hormone production. b. The condition that occurs with ingestion of too little sugar in the diet. c. The body's attack on its own joints, leading to severe joint pain. d. The body's inability to produce insulin. - Answer D 31. What is the best course of action to follow if a patient is suffering from a cerebral vascular abnormality or stroke? a. Administer epinephrine from the epinephrine pen in the medical emergency kit. b. Have the patient stand up to allow for blood flow to be directed away from the head to relieve cranial pressure. c. Place the patient in the supine position and administer oxygen. d. Keep the patient calm and call the emergency response team. - Answer D 32. Which type of medication would be prescribed by a doctor to a patient who is suffering from high blood pressure? a. Antihypertensive. b. Anticonvulsant. c. Antipyretic. d. Antiglycemic. - Answer A 33. Which of the following statements correctly describes the symptoms of a bronchospasm? a. Pallor. b. Polyphagia. c. Short gasping inspirations and long wheezing expirations. d. Disturbance of speech, vision, and swallowing. - Answer C 34. What is the normal, healthy amount of blood usually present in an adult body? a. 2 to 3 pints. b. 5 to 6 quarts. c. 3 gallons. d. 25 ounces. - Answer B