Practice Exam, National Pesticide Applicator Certification Core Manual Questions and Answers 2023

Practice Exam, National Pesticide Applicator Certification Core Manual Questions and Answers 2023 Breeding or selecting plants and animals with characteristics for resistance to pests is an example of which type of pest management method? A. Biological control. B. Mechanical control. C. Genetic Control. D. Physical/ environmental modificaiton. C Using a plow to destry weeeds is an example of which type of mechanical control method? A. Exclusion. B. Trapping. C. Cultivation. D. Physical/ environmental modification. C Which statement is true about chemical control as a pest management method? A. Pesticides play a key role in pest management programs and sometimes are the only control method available. B. Pesticides include any material that is applied to plants and the soil but not to water or harvested crops. C. A highly selective pesticide controls a wide variety of pests. D. Systemic pesticides are not absorbed by treated plants or animals. A Which statement is true about pest management goals? A. Pestcides are never used to prevent pests. B. Preventive and suppressive pest control goals are rarely combined. C. Cultiviation and mowing of weeds are ways to prevent and suppress pest populations. D. Over large areas, eradication is a practical approach to pest cotnrol. C Which term describes the pest population density that causes the losses equal to the cost of control measures? A. Economic threshold. B. Economic injury level. C. Action threshold. D. Pest threshold. B Which would decrease the likelihood of pesticide resistance? A. Increasing label dosages. B. Using pesticides from the same class of chemicals. C. Applying the pesticide over a wide area. D. Using pesticides with multiple sites of toxicity in an organism. D Which federal law requires employers to provide agricultural workers and pesticide handlers with protections against possible harm form pesticides? A. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA). B. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA). C. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA). D. Workers Protection Standard (WPS) D What are the two main classifications of pesticides under FIFRA? A. Organic and inorganic. B. General-use and unclassified use. C. Regulated and unregulated. D. Unclassified use and restricted-use D What is a tolerance as set by the EPA? A. The maximum amount of pesticides residue that may legally remain on or in a commodity at the time of harvest or slaughter. B. The maximum amount of pesticide residue that workers may be exposed to during the course of an average workday. C. The minimum amount of pesticide residue that may remain on a crop during the growing season. D. The minimum amount of pesticide residue that may be consumed by a 150-pound person on a yearly basis. A Which of the following section sections under FIFRA could be used to alow the use of an unregistered pesticide to control an "emergency" pest problem? A. Section 3 B. Section 18 C. Section 24 (c) D. Section 25 (b) C The name "VIP No Pest 75WP" on a pesticide label indicates: A. The chemical name and 75 percent inert ingredients formulated as a wettable powder. B. The brand name and 25 percent active ingredients, formulated as a wettable powder. C. The brand name and 75 percent active ingredients, formulated as a wettable powder. D. The chemical name and 25 percent active ingredients, formulated as a wettable powder. C Which signal word appears on a label with a skull and crossbones symbol? A. DANGER-POISON. B. DANGER C. WARNING D. CAUTION A Which statement is true about protective clothing and equipment statements? A. Pesticide labels are very consistent in the type of information they contain on protective clothing and equipment. B. When a respirator is required, the model is always specified on the label. C. It is not necessary to follow all advice on protective clothing or equipment that appears on the label. D. If a pesticide label does not specifically mention a type of protective clothing or equipment that does not rule out the need for the additional protection or equipment. D "This product is highly toxic to bees" is an example of which type of precautionary statement? A. Acute toxicity hazard. B. Environmental hazard. C. Physical or chemical hazard. D. Agricultural use requirement. B Which is true about REIs (restricted-entry intervals)? A. The pesticide manufacturer sets REIs B. The REI statement is most often listed under "Non-agricultural use requirements." C. REIs are not covered under the EPA's Worker Protection Standard (WPS). D. If there are multiple REIs on a label, the REIs are usually found at the beginning of each use section for each crop. D How much active ingredient is there in a 20-pound bag of Atrazine 90DF? A. 4 pounds. B. 9 pounds. C. 18 pounds. D. 20 pounds. C What type of pesticide formulation consists of a liquid dispersed as droplets in another liquid and may require agitiation? A. Microencapsulated. B. Solution. C. Suspension. D. Emulsion. C Which liquid pesticide formulation contains solid particles that do not dissolve in either water or oil and may contribute to abrasive wear of nozzles and pumps? A. Ultra-low volume (ULV). B. Invert emulsions. C. Aerosols (A). D. Flowables (F)/ Liquids (L). D Which dry/solid formulation requires constant agitation and may be abrasive to pumps and nozzles and cause them to wear out quickly? A. Dusts (D) B. Granules (G) C. Wettable powders (WP) D. Soluble powders (SP) C Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation is always dry and can easily drift to non-target sites? A. Dusts. B. Granules. C. Pellets. D. Baits. A What type of formulation covers either a liquid or dry pesticide particle with platic? A. Pellets. B. Microencapsulates. C. Water-soluble packets. D. Water-dispersible granules. B Which statement is true about adjuvants? A. They posses pesticidal activity. B. They must be registered by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency. C. Adjuvants often increase spray application problems. D. Adjuvants are either premixed in the pesticide formulation or added to the spray tank mixture. D Which type of adjuvant increases the adhesion of solid particles to target surfaces? A. Compatibility agents. B. Stickers C. Drift retardants. D. Defoaming agents. B Which equation reflects the relationship between pesticide safety concerns? A. Hazard=toxicity x exposure. B. Toxicity=hazard x exposure. C. Exposure= hazard x toxicity. D. Hazard=exposure x risk A Which statement is true about the LD50 and LC50? A. The LD50 and LC50 measure multiple toxic effects. B. The LD50 and LC50 translate directly to humans. C. The LD50 and LC50 measure the potential buildups of effects due to multiple exposures. D. The LD50 and LC50 measure acute toxicity. D Which signal word is associated with Hazard Class III (i.e, small to medium dose could cause death, illness, or skin, eye, or respiratory damage) and must have the Spanish word "Aviso" on the label? A. DANGER-POISON B. DANGER C. WARNING D. CAUTION C What should be done if cholinesterase levels fall significantly below baseline? A. Have the pesticide handler increase the use of personal protective equipment until the cholinesterase level builds back up again to normal levels. B. Remove the pesticide handler fromm pesticide exposure for at least one year. C. Remove the pesticide handler from pesticide exposure until such time as the cholinesterase level builds back up again to normal levels. D. Seek medical attention immediately for the pesticide handler and have them avoid mixing and loading pesticides for 48 hours after the last exposure. C What would be the first objective if dermal exposure to a pesticide has occured? A. Get the victim to fresh air immediately. B. Administer artificial respiration. C. Rinse the pesticide off to prevent absorption. D. Apply a first-aid ointment to the affected area. C Which statement is true about inducing vomiting for a victim of oral pesticide exposure? A. Always induce vomiting after a victim has swallowed a pesticide. B. Induce vomiting with the victim lying flat on his back. C. Ipecac syprup is routinely recommended to induce vomiting. D. Before inducing vomiting, first give the victim at least 2 glasses of water to dilute the product. D What type of PPE should you wear during an application if large amounts of a pesticide could be deposited on your clothing over an extended period of time? A. A coverall made of a cottonsynthetic blend. B. A chemical-resistant suite made of rubber or plastic. C. A chemical-resistant rubber apron. D. Long-sleeved shirt and long pants made of a woven cotton fabric. B Which is the appropriate way to wear gloves and footwear for a job in which you will be working with your arms raised some of the time and lowered some of the time? A. Wear gloves with your sleeves over them and put your pant legs outside your boots. B. Wear gloves outsie of your sleeves and war your pant legs inside your boots. C. Wear gloves with a cuff closed tightly outside the sleeve and wear your pant legs inside your boots. D. Wear gloves with a cuff closed tightly outside the sleeve and wear your pant legs outside your boots. D Which statement is true about respiratory protection? A. Air-purifying respirators supply additional oxygen. B. All respirators are approved by the EPA. C. Filters are classified on the basis of oil degradation resistance and filter efficiency. D. Non-powered particulate respirators use a fan to help draw air through a cartridge. C Which statement is true about replacing reusable PPE? A. Reusable items need to be replaced only at the end of the work season. B. Gloves generally last longer than footwear, aprons, headgear, and protective suits. C. Glove replacement is a high priority. D. If PPE is starting to thin out, it can be reused as long as there are no holes. C