NR_511 Diagnosis And Primary Care Practicum Q&A

NR_511 Diagnosis And Primary Care Practicum Q&A NR_511 Diagnosis And Primary Care Practicum Q&A Quizbit, a factory line worker, has osteoarthritis (OA) of the right hand. According to the American College of Rheumatology (ACR), the guidelines for pharmacologic treatment include: - Topical capsaicin, topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and oral NSAIDs. For an adult patient with a knee injury, the nurse practitioner orders a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) to be taken on a routine basis for the next 2 weeks. Patient teaching should include which of the following? - "If you have additional pain, an occasional acetaminophen (Tylenol) is permitted in between the usual doses of the NSAID." A 13-year-old obese (body mass index [BMI] above the 95th percentile) boy reports low-grade left knee pain for the past 2 months. He denies antecedent trauma but admits to frequent "horseplay" with his friends. The pain has progressively worsened, and he is now unable to bear weight at all on his left leg. His current complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee pain and tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman, and McMurray tests; left hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction; and external hip rotation with knee flexion. Based on the above scenario, the nurse practitioner should suspect: - A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). During assessment of a client's foot, the nurse practitioner notes that the foot is in alignment with the long axis of the lower leg and that weight-bearing falls on the middle of the foot from the heel, along the midfoot, to between the second and third toes. These findings best describe: - A normal foot. Sam, age 50, presents with Paget disease that has been stable for several years. Recently, his serum alkaline phosphatase level has been steadily rising. The nurse practitioner determines that it is time to start him on pharmacologic management. Which of the following should she initially prescribe? - Bisphosphonates. You are caring for a patient who has a history of psoriasis and is now showing signs of joint involvement. Seropositivity provides a definitive diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis (PsA). The initial treatment choice for management of the patient is: - Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). A 55-year-old patient presents with complaints of paresthesias in the lower lateral arm, thumb, and middle finger. The nerve roots most commonly related to these symptoms are C6 and C7. The most likely diagnosis would be: - Cervical radiculopathy Sandra, a computer programmer, has just been given a new diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome. The nurse practitioner's next step is to: - Try neutral position wrist splinting and order an oral nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Janine, age 69, has class III rheumatoid arthritis. According to the American Rheumatism Association, which of the following describes her ability to function? - Adequate to perform only a few or none of the duties of usual occupation or self-care.