HESI 102 FUNDAMENTALS PRACTICE TEST B EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE

HESI 102 FUNDAMENTALS PRACTICE TEST B EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE What is the rationale for using the nursing process in planning care for clients? A. As a scientific process to identify nursing diagnoses of a clients' healthcare problems. B. To establish nursing theory that incorporates the biopsychosocial nature of humans. C. As a tool to organize thinking and clinical decision making about clients' healthcare needs. D. To promote the management of client care in collaboration with other healthcare professionals. (ANS-: C) What activity should the nurse use in the evaluation phase of the nursing process? A. Ask a client to evaluate the nursing care provided. B. Document the nursing care plan in the progress notes. C. Determine whether a client's health problems have been alleviated. D. Examine the effectiveness of nursing interventions toward meeting client outcomes. (ANS-: D Which statement is an example of a correctly written nursing diagnosis statement? A. Altered tissue perfusion related to congestive heart failure. B. Altered urinary elimination related to urinary tract infection. C. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to client's refusal to turn. D. Ineffective coping related to response to positive biopsy test results. (ANS-: D What action by the nurse demonstrates culturally sensitive care? A. Asks permission before touching a client. B. Avoids questions about male-female relationships. C. Explains the differences between Western medical care and cultural folk remedies. D. Applies knowledge of a cultural group unless a client embraces Western customs. (ANS-: A A nurse is becoming increasingly frustrated by the family members' efforts to participate in the care of a hospitalized client. What action should the nurse implement to cope with these feelings of frustration? A. Suggest that other cultural practices be substituted by the family members. B. Examine one's own culturally based values, beliefs, attitudes, and practices. C. Explain to the family that multiple visitors are exhausting to the client. D. Allow the situation to continue until a family member's action may harm the client. (ANS-: B Which technique is most important for the nurse to implement when performing a physical assessment? A. A head-to-toe approach. B. The medical systems model. C. A consistent, systematic approach. D. An approach related to a nursing model. (ANS-: C A 73-year-old Hispanic client is seen at the community health clinic with a history of protein malnutrition. What information should the nurse obtain first? A. Amount of liquid protein supplements consumed daily. B. Foods and liquids consumed during the past 24 hours. C. Usual weekly intake of milk products and red meats. D. Grains and legume combinations used by the client. (ANS-: B The nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of, "Ineffective health maintenance related to lack of motivation" for a client with Type 2 diabetes. Which finding supports this nursing diagnosis? A. Does not check capillary blood glucose as directed. B. Occasionally forgets to take daily prescribed medication. C. Cannot identify signs or symptoms of high and low blood glucose. D. Eats anything and does not think diet makes a difference in health. (ANS: D Which statement correctly identifies a written learning objective for a client with peripheral vascular disease? A. The nurse will provide client instruction for daily foot care. B. The client will demonstrate proper trimming toenail technique. C. Upon discharge, the client will list three ways to protect the feet from injury. D. After instruction, the nurse will ensure the client understands foot care rationale. (ANS-: C A middle-aged woman who enjoys being a teacher and mentor feels that she should pass down her legacy of knowledge and skills to the younger generation. According to Erikson, she is involved in what developmental stage? A. Generativity. B. Ego integrity. C. Identification. D. Valuing wisdom (ANS-: A Which statement best describes durable power of attorney for health care? A. The client signs a document that designates another person to make legally binding healthcare decisions if client is unable to do so. B. The healthcare decisions made by another person designated by the client are not legally binding. C. Instructions about actions to be taken in the event of a client's terminal or irreversible condition are not legally binding. D. Directions regarding care in the event of a terminal or irreversible condition must be documented to ensure that they are legally binding. (ANS- A A male client with an infected wound tells the nurse that he follows a macrobiotic diet. Which type of foods should the nurse recommend that the client select from the hospital menu? A. Low fat and low sodium foods. B. Combination of plant proteins to provide essential amino acids. C. Limited complex carbohydrates and fiber. D. Increased amount of vitamin C and beta carotene rich foods. (ANS-: B A client with Raynaud's disease asks the nurse about using biofeedback for selfmanagement of symptoms. What response is best for the nurse to provide? A. The responses to biofeedback have not been well established and may be a waste of time and money. B. Biofeedback requires extensive training to retrain voluntary muscles, not involuntary responses. C. Although biofeedback is easily learned, it is mostly often used to manage exacerbation of symptoms. D. Biofeedback allows the client to control involuntary responses to promote peripheral vasodilation. (ANS-: D A female client informs the nurse that she uses herbal therapies to supplement her diet and manage common ailments. What information should the nurse offer the client about general use of herbal supplements? A. Most herbs are toxic or carcinogenic and should be used only when proven effective. B. There is no evidence that herbs are safe or effective as compared to conventional supplements in maintaining health. C. Herbs should be obtained from manufacturers with a history of quality control of their supplements. D. Herbal therapies may mask the symptoms of serious disease, so frequent medical evaluation is required during use. (ANS: C A female client who has breast cancer with metastasis to the liver and spine is admitted with constant, severe pain despite around-the-clock use of oxycodone (Percodan) and amitriptyline (Elavil) for pain control at home. During the admission assessment, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain? A. Sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain. B. Trigger points identified by palpation and manual pressure of painful areas. C. Schedule and total dosages of drugs currently used for breakthrough pain. D. Sympathetic responses consistent with onset of acute pain. (ANS-: A A client who has moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily. If Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented? A. Continue gabapentin. B. Discontinue ibuprofen. C. Add aspirin to the protocol. D. Add oral methadone to the protocol. (ANS- Correct Answer: A To obtain the most complete assessment data for a client with chronic pain, which information should the nurse obtain? A. Can you describe where your pain is the most severe? B. What is your pain intensity on a scale of 1 to 10? C. Is your pain best described as aching, throbbing, or sharp? D. Which activities during a routine day are impacted by your pain? (ANS- Correct Answer: D A male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops cryptococcal meningitis and tells the nurse he does not want to be resuscitated if his breathing stops. What action should the nurse implement? A. Document the client's request in the medical record. B. Ask the client if this decision has been discussed with his healthcare provider. C. Inform the client that a written, notarized advance directive, is required to withhold resuscitation efforts. D. Advise the client to designate a person to make healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so. (ANS- Advance directives are written statements of a person's wishes regarding medical care, and verbal directives may be given to a healthcare provider with specific instructions in the presence of two witnesses. To obtain this prescription, the client should discuss his choice with the healthcare provider (B). (A) is insufficient to implement the client's request without legal consequences. Although (C and D) provide legal protection of the client's wishes, the present request needs additional action. Correct Answer: B The nurse is discussing dietary preferences with a client who adheres to a vegan diet. Which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to include the dietary plan? A. Fiber. B. Folate. C. Ascorbic acid. D. Vitamin B12. (ANS- : D The nurse is preparing a male client who has an indwelling catheter and an IV infusion to ambulate from the bed to a chair for the first time following abdominal surgery. What action(s) should the nurse implement prior to assisting the client to the chair? (Select all that apply.) A. Pre-medicate the client with an analgesic. B. Inform the client of the plan for moving to the chair. C. Obtain and place a portable commode by the bed. D. Ask the client to push the IV pole to the chair. E. Clamp the indwelling catheter. F. Assess the client's blood pressure. (ANS- The nurse should plan to implement (A, B, D, and F). Pre-medicating the client with an analgesic (A) reduces the client's pain during mobilization and maximizes compliance. To ensure the client's cooperation and promote independence, the nurse should inform the client about the plan for moving to the chair (B) and encourage the client to participate by pushing the IV pole when walking to the chair (D). The nurse should assess the client's blood pressure (F) prior to mobilization, which can cause orthostatic hypotension. (C and E) are not indicated. Correct Answer: A, B, D, F A client is demonstrating a positive Chvostek's sign. What action should the nurse take? A. Observe the client's pupil size and response to light. B. Ask the client about numbness or tingling in the hands. C. Assess the client's serum potassium level. D. Restrict dietary intake of calcium-rich foods. (ANS- A positive Chvostek's sign is an indication of hypocalcemia, so the client should be assessed for the subjective symptoms of hypocalcemia, such as numbness or tingling of the hands (B) or feet. (A and C) are unrelated assessment data. (D) is contraindicated because the client is hypocalcemic and needs additional dietary calcium. Correct Answer: B When preparing to administer an intravenous medication through a central venous catheter, the nurse aspirates a blood return in one of the lumens of the triple lumen catheter. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Flush the lumen with the saline solution and administer the medication through the lumen. B. Determine if a PRN prescription for a thrombolytic agent is listed on the medication record. C. Clamp the lumen and obtain a syringe of a dilute heparin solution to flush through the tubing. D. Withdraw the aspirated blood into the syringe and use a new syringe to administer the medication. (ANS- Aspiration of a blood return in the lumen of a central venous catheter indicates that the catheter is in place and the medication can be administered. The nurse should flush the tubing with the saline solution, administer the medication (A), then flush the lumen with saline again. (B and C) are not necessary. The aspirated blood can be flushed back through the closed system into the client's bloodstream, but does not need to be withdrawn (D). Correct Answer: A Which client assessment data is most important for the nurse to consider before ambulating a postoperative client? A. Respiratory rate. B. Wound location. C. Pedal pulses. D. Pain rating. (ANS- Mobilization and ambulation increase oxygen use, so it is most important to assess the client's respiratory rate (A)before ambulation to determine tolerance for activity. (B, C, and D) are also important, but are of lower priority than (A). Correct Answer: A The nurse is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client whose intravenous (IV) access is an antecubital saline lock. After the nurse opens the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should the nurse take first? A. Check for a blood return. B. Reposition the client's arm. C. Remove the IV site dressing. D. Flush the lock with saline. (ANS- If the client's elbow is bent, the IV may be unable to infuse, resulting in an obstruction alarm, so the nurse should first attempt to reposition the client's arm to alleviate any obstruction (B). After other sources of occlusion are eliminated, the nurse may need to check for a blood return (A), remove the dressing (C), or flush the saline lock (D) and then resume the intermittent infusion. Correct Answer: B Which nursing intervention is most beneficial in reducing the risk of urosepsis in a hospitalized client with an indwelling urinary catheter? A. Ensure that the client's perineal area is cleansed twice a day. B. Maintain accurate documentation of the fluid intake and output. C. Encourage frequent ambulation if allowed or regular turning if on bedrest. D. Obtain a prescription for removal of the catheter as soon as possible. (ANS- The best intervention to reduce the risk for urosepsis (spread of an infectious agent from the urinary tract to systemic circulation) is removal of the urinary catheter as quickly as possible (D). (A, B, and C) are helpful to reduce the risk of infection, but are of less priority than (D) in reducing the risk of urosepsis. Correct Answer: D In evaluating client care, which action should the nurse take first? A. Determine if the expected outcomes of care were achieved. B. Review the rationales used as the basis of nursing actions. C. Document the care plan goals that were successfully met. D. Prioritize interventions to be added to the client's plan of care. (ANS- In evaluating care, the nurse should first determine if the expected outcomes of the plan of care were achieved (A). As indicated, the nurse may then review the initial nursing actions and the rationales for those actions (B), document successful completion of the care plan goals (C), and revise the plan of care (D). Correct Answer: A Prior to administering a newly prescribed medication to a client, the nurse reviews the adverse effects of the medication listed in a drug reference guide and determines the priority risks to the client. While performing this action, the nurse is engaged in which step of the nursing process? A. Assessment. B. Analysis. C. Implementation. D. Evaluation. (ANS- The nurse is analyzing (B) data to establish an individualized nursing diagnosis, such as, "Risk for injury related to side effects of drugs." This analysis is based on assessment (A) and guides the planning and implementation (C) of care, such as the decision to monitor the client frequently. (D) provides the nurse with information about the effectiveness of the plan of care. Correct Answer: B The nurses determines a client's IV solution is infusing at 250 ml/hr. The prescribed rate is 125 ml/hr. What action should the nurse take first? A. Determine when the IV solution was started. B. Slow the IV infusion to keep vein open rate. C. Assess the IV insertion site for swelling. D. Report the finding to the healthcare provider. (ANS- The nurse should first slow the IV flow rate to keep vein open (KVO) rate (B) to prevent further risk of fluid volume overload, then gather additional assessment data, such as when the IV solution was started (A) and the appearance of the IV insertion site (C) before contacting the healthcare provider (D) for further instructions. Correct Answer: B A male nurse is assigned to care for a female Muslim client. When the nurse offers to bathe the client, the client requests that a female nurse perform this task. How should the male nurse respond? A. May I ask your daughter to help you with your personal hygiene? B. I will ask one of the female nurses to bathe you. C. A staff member on the next shift will help you. D. I will keep you draped and hand you the supplies as you need them. (ANS- Many female Muslim clients are very modest and prefer to receive personal care from another female because of their religious and cultural beliefs. The most culturally sensitive response is for the male nurse to ask a female colleague to perform this task (B). (A and D) are less respectful of the client's cultural and spiritual preferences. (C) delays the client's care. Correct Answer: B As the nurse prepares the equipment to be used to start an IV on a 4-year-old boy in the treatment room, he cries continuously. What intervention should the nurse implement? A. Take the child back to his room. B. Recruit others to restrain the child. C. Ask the mother to be present to soothe the child. D. Show the child how to manipulate the equipment. (ANS- A 4-year-old typically has a vivid imagination and lacks concrete thinking abilities. The mother's assistance (C) can provide a stabilizing presence to help soothe the preschooler, who may perceive the invasive procedure as mutilating. To preserve the child's sense of security associated with the hospital room, it is best to perform difficult or painful procedures in another area (A). (B) may be necessary to prevent injury if the child is unable to cooperate with the mother's coaxing. (D) is best done before going to the treatment room when the child feels less threatened. Correct Answer: C When making the bed of a client who needs a bed cradle, which action should the nurse include? A. Teach the client to call for help before getting out of bed. B. Keep both the upper and lower side rails in a raised position. C. Keep the bed in the lowest position while changing the sheets. D. Drape the top sheet and covers loosely over the bed cradle. (ANS- A bed cradle is used to keep the top bedclothes off the client, so the nurse should drape the top sheet and covers loosely over the cradle (D). A client using a bed cradle may still be able to ambulate independently (A) and does not require raised side rails (B). (C) causes the nurse to use poor body mechanics. Correct Answer: D A male client has a nursing diagnosis of "spiritual distress." What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client? A. Use distraction techniques during times of spiritual stress and crisis. B. Reassure the client that his faith will be regained with time and support. C. Consult with the staff chaplain and ask that the chaplain visit with the client. D. Use reflective listening techniques when the client expresses spiritual doubts. (ANS- The most beneficial nursing intervention is to use nonjudgmental reflective listening techniques, to allow the client to feel comfortable expressing his concerns (D). (A and B) are not therapeutic. The client should be consulted before implementing (C). Correct Answer: D A client has a nursing diagnosis of, "Spiritual distress related to a loss of hope, secondary to impending death." What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client? A. Help the client to accept the final stage of life. B. Assist and support the client in establishing short-term goals. C. Encourage the client to make future plans, even if they are unrealistic. D. Instruct the client's family to focus on positive aspects of the client's life. (ANS- Hopefulness is necessary to sustain a meaningful existence, even close to death. The nurse should help the client set short-term goals, and recognize the achievement of immediate goals (B), such as seeing a family member, or listening to music. (A) is too vague to be a helpful intervention. (C) does not help the client deal with this nursing diagnosis. (D) might be implemented, but does not have the priority of (B). Correct Answer: B The nurse overhears the healthcare provider explaining to the client that the tumor removed was nonmalignant and that the client will be fine. However, the nurse has read in the pathology report that the tumor was malignant and that there is extensive metastasis. Who should the nurse consult with first regarding the situation? A. Healthcare provider. B. Client's family. C. Case manager. D. Chief of staff. (ANS- The nurse should address the healthcare provider with the written report and discuss why he/she did not tell the client the truth--this may be at the family's request (A). (B, C, and D) may be indicated, but first the nurse should confer with the healthcare provider to obtain all needed information. Correct Answer: A A single mother of two teenagers, ages 16 and 18, was just told that she has advanced cancer. She is devastated by the news, and expresses her concern about who will care for her children. Which statement by the nurse is likely to be most helpful at this time? A. Your children are old enough to help you make decisions about their futures. B. The social worker can tell you about placement alternatives for your children. C. Tell me what you would like to see happen with your children in the future. D. You have just received bad news, and you need some time to adjust to it. (ANS- The nurse should first assess what the client desires (C). (A) is somewhat judgmental and attempts to solve the problem for the client without eliciting the client's feelings. Though a referral to the social worker (B) may be indicated, the nurse should first offer support. Time is likely to help the client cope with this news (D), but the nurse should first provide support and assess what the client wants to see happen with her children. Correct Answer: C In providing care for a terminally ill resident of a long-term care facility, the nurse determines that the resident is exhibiting signs of impending death and has a "do not resuscitate" or DNR status. What intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Request hospice care for the client. B. Report the client's acuity level to the nursing supervisor. C. Notify family members of the client's condition. D. Inform the chaplain that the client's death is imminent. (ANS- The nurse's first priority is to notify the family of the resident's impending death (C). The family may request that hospice care is initiated (A). Reporting the client's acuity level (B) does not have the priority of informing the family of the client's condition. Once the family is contacted, the nurse can also contact the chaplain (D). Correct Answer: C When the nurse enters a client's room to do an initial assessment, the client shouts, "Get out of my room! I'm tired of being bothered!" How should the nurse respond? A. There is no reason to be so angry. B. Why do I need to leave your room? C. What is concerning you this morning? D. Let me call the client advocate for you. (ANS- (C) is an open-ended question that encourages the client to discuss personal feelings. (A) devalues the client and hinders further communication. Acting defensively and asking why questions such as (B) are likely to elicit more anger and block communication. By deferring to the client advocate (D), the nurse fails to even address the client's feelings of anger and exasperation. Correct Answer: C The nurse encounters resistance when inserting the tubing into a client's rectum for a tap water enema. What action should the nurse implement? A. Withdraw the tube and apply additional lubricant to the tube. B. Encourage the client to bear down and continue to insert the tube. C. Remove the tube and check the client for a fecal impaction. D. Ask the client to relax and run a small amount of fluid into the rectum. (ANS- If resistance is encountered during the initial insertion of an enema tube, the client should be instructed to relax while a small amount of solution runs through the tube into the rectum (D) to promote dilation. (A) is unlikely to resolve the problem. (B) may cause injury. (C) should not be implemented until other, less invasive actions, such as (D) have been taken. Correct Answer: D When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client's skin over the sternum "tents" when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Confirm the finding by further assessing the client for jugular vein distention. B. Offer the client high protein snacks between regularly scheduled mealtimes. C. Continue the planned nursing interventions to restore the client's fluid volume. D. Change the plan of care to include a nursing diagnosis of impaired skin integrity. (ANS- Skin turgor is assessed by pinching the skin and observing for tenting. This finding confirms the diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, so the nurse should continue interventions to restore the client's fluid volume (C). Jugular vein distention (A) is a sign of fluid volume overload. High protein snacks (B) will not resolve the fluid volume deficit. Changes in the client's skin integrity are not evident (D). Correct Answer: C When teaching a female client to perform intermittent self-catheterization, the nurse should ensure the client's ability to perform which action? A. Locate the perineum. B. Transfer to a commode. C. Attach the catheter to a drainage bag. D. Manipulate a syringe to inflate the balloon. (ANS- Adequate visualization or palpation of the perineum (A) is essential to ensure correct placement of the catheter. (B) is not necessary to perform selfcatheterization. During a self-catheterization, the client typically allows the urine to drain into an open collection device, rather than a drainage bag (C), and uses a straight catheter without a balloon (D). Correct Answer: A A client in hospice care develops audible gurgling sounds on inspiration. Which nursing action has the highest priority? A. Ensure cultural customs are observed. B. Increase oxygen flow to 4L/minute. C. Auscultate bilateral lung fields. D. Inform the family that death is imminent. (ANS- An audible gurgling sound produced by a dying client is characteristic of ineffective clearance of secretions from the lungs or upper airways, causing a rattling sound as air moves through the accumulated fluid. The nursing priority in this situation is to convey to the family that the client's death is imminent (D). Although culturally sensitive care should be observed throughout the client's plan of care (A), this is not the priority at this time. Administration of oxygen may be expected care, but a flow rate greater than 2 L/minute (B) is not palliative care. (C) may provide additional information, but is not necessary as death approaches. Correct Answer: D The nurse notes that a client consistently coughs while eating and drinking. Which nursing diagnosis is most important for the nurse include in this client's plan of care? A. Ineffective breathing pattern. B. Impaired gas exchange. C. Risk for aspiration. D. Ineffective airway clearance. (ANS- Coughing during or after meals is a manifestation of dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, which places the client at risk for aspiration (C). Dysphagia can lead to aspiration pneumonia, but the client is not currently exhibiting any symptoms of breathing difficulty (A) or impaired gas exchange (B). Although (D) may be related to an ineffective cough, the client's coughing is an effective response when solids or liquids are taken orally. Correct Answer: C The nurse is digitally removing a fecal impaction for a client. The nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted? A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F. B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min. C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min. D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mm/Hg. (ANS- Parasympathetic reaction can occur as a result of digital stimulation of the anal sphincter, which should be stopped if the client experiences a vagal response, such as bradycardia (B). (A, C, and D) do not warrant stopping the procedure. Correct Answer: B A client is admitted with a stage four pressure ulcer that has a black, hardened surface and a light-pink wound bed with a malodorous green drainage. Which dressing is best for the nurse to use first? A. Hydrogel. B. Exudate absorber. C. Wet to moist dressing. D. Transparent adhesive film. (ANS- To provide moisture and loosen the necrotic tissue, the eschar should be covered first with wet to moist dressings (C), which are discontinued and then a hydrogel alginate can be placed in the prepared wound bed to prevent further damage of granulating any surrounding tissue. Although a hydrogel (A) liquefies necrotic tissue of slough and rehydrates the wound bed, it does not address wicking the purulent drainage from the wound. Exudate absorbers (B) provide a moist wound surface, absorb exudate, and support debridement, but do not prepare the wound bed for proper healing. Transparent dressings (D) are used to protect against contamination and friction while maintaining a clean moist surface. Correct Answer: C A 35-year-old female client with cancer refuses to allow the nurse to insert an IV for a scheduled chemotherapy treatment, and states that she is ready to go home to die. What intervention should the nurse initiate? A. Review the client's medical record for an advance directive. B. Determine if a do-not-resuscitate prescription has been obtained. C. Document that the client is being discharged against medical advice. D. Evaluate the client's mental status for competence to refuse treatment. (ANS- Competent clients have the right to refuse treatment, so the nurse should first ensure that the client is competent (D). (A and C) are not necessary for a competent client to refuse treatment. The nurse cannot document (C) until the healthcare provider is notified of the client's wishes and a discharge prescription is obtained. Correct Answer: D A client with chronic renal disease is admitted to the hospital for evaluation prior to a surgical procedure. Which laboratory test indicates the client's protein status for the longest length of time? A. Transferrin. B. Prealbumin. C. Serum albumin. D. Urine urea nitrogen. (ANS- Serum albumin has a long half-life and is the best long-term indicator of the body's entry into a catabolic state following protein depletion from malnutrition or stress of chronic illness (C). While (A) is a good indicator of iron-binding capacity in a healthy adult, it is an unreliable measure in the client with a chronic illness. (B) has a short half-life, and is a sensitive indicator of recent catabolic changes, but it is not as effective as (C) in indicating long-term protein depletion. While (D) is a good indicator of a negative nitrogen balance, it is not as good an indicator of longterm protein catabolism as is (C). Correct Answer: C