MFT Exam Set 2023 - Questions with correct answers

MFT Exam Set 2023 A young woman comes to therapy alone. She has been dating a man for almost a year and they recently began having sexual relations. Although the woman is sexually aroused during intercourse, she is unable to achieve orgasm through either intercourse or clitoral stimulation. The woman says that, while this is her first experience with intercourse, she has masturbated to orgasm several times. In treating the woman a therapist using Masters and Johnson's approach to sex therapy is most likely to recommend that the woman use which of the following techniques? Select one: a. The bridge technique b. The stop-start technique c. Sensate focus d. The squeeze technique - answerAlthough many questions that ask you to choose an intervention are "best answer" questions, this is a "one-correct-answer" question because Masters and Johnson suggest specific procedures for treating each sexual dysfunction.Answer C is correct: In treating secondary Orgasmic Disorder, Masters and Johnson emphasize the sexual value system and recommend giving the couple permission to be sexual, using sensate focus with constant communication of likes and dislikes to the partner, genital play, penile containment without thrusting, and, finally, coitus.Answer A is incorrect: Be careful: this is associated with Kaplan's treatment for secondary Orgasmic Disorder.Answer B is incorrect: This is associated with Kaplan's treatment for Premature Ejaculation.Answer D is incorrect: This technique is associated with Masters and Johnson, but is used to treat male sexual dysfunction, such as Premature Ejaculation. The correct answer is: Sensate focus Based on the initial evaluation of a 15-year-old boy, a clinician believes the nature and number of his symptoms suggest a DSM-5 diagnosis of Attention-Deficit or Hyperactivity Disorder, predominantly inattentive presentation. Before assigning the diagnosis, the clinician will want to confirm that some symptoms were present before the boy was years of age and that he exhibits them in at least settings. Select one: a. 7; 2 b. 12; 2 c. 6; 3 d. 10; 3 - answerAnswer B is correct: For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM-5 requires that "several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms were present prior to age 12" (p. 60) and that symptoms are present in at least two settings. Answer A is incorrect: This answer describes the DSM-IV-TR requirements for the diagnosis. The correct answer is: 12; 2 Bipolar I Disorder is distinguished from Bipolar II Disorder by the presence of which kind of episode? Select one: a. Manic episode b. Psychotic episode c. Mixed episode d. Depressed episode - answerThis is another straightforward recall question about diagnosis.Answer A is correct: The presence of a manic episode rules out Bipolar II Disorder. The criteria for diagnosing Bipolar I Disorder include one or more manic episodes.Answer B is incorrect: With psychotic features is a specifier for Bipolar I Disorder, but psychotic episodes are not one of the types of episodes associated with the Bipolar Disorders. The correct answer is: Manic episode Charles and Martha bring their two children to therapy. The parents are concerned with how disrespectful the youngest child is to the mother. Whenever she tries to discipline him, he engages in name-calling and has threatened violence. The therapist asks the mother to recall a recent event that occurred and notes that the husband rolls his eyes and looks away as she begins to speak. When the therapist calls attention to the husband's response, the youngest child immediately lashes out at his mother. A structural therapist would view this interaction as: Select one: a. Conflict-detouring. b. Reciprocal inhibition. c. Equifinality.