Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and Physiology 2000 Multiple Choice Questions

Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and Physiology 2000 Multiple Choice Questions Martin Caon School of Health Sciences Flinders University Bedford Park, South Australia, Australia Additional material to this book can be downloaded from . ISBN 978-981-10-2331-6 ISBN 978-981-10-2332-3 (eBook) DOI 10.1007/978-981-10-2332-3 Library of Congress Control Number: 9 © Springer Science+Business Media Singapore 2016 This work is subject to copyright. All rights are reserved by the Publisher, whether the whole or part of the material is concerned, specifically the rights of translation, reprinting, reuse of illustrations, recitation, broadcasting, reproduction on microfilms or in any other physical way, and transmission or information storage and retrieval, electronic adaptation, computer software, or by similar or dissimilar methodology now known or hereafter developed. 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The registered company address is: 152 Beach Road, #22-06/08 Gateway East, Singapore , Singapore Preface Two thousand multiple choice questions that could be asked of a student of introduc- tory human anatomy and physiology are presented in 40 categories. It is assumed that users of these questions are teachers or students who have completed at least part of an anatomy and physiology course that might be offered in the first year of a university degree programme. It is also assumed that they would have access to one of the anatomy and physiology textbooks (or similar) listed in the bibliography below. Each category has an Introduction containing a summary of useful knowl- edge pertinent to that category of question. However not all possible information is provided within these Introductions, so a textbook is indispensable. The summary Introductions are composed with vocabulary that may be unfamiliar to the beginning student but which should be known in order to understand the questions. You will need to look up the meaning of many unfamiliar words as your studies progress. All questions have been used at least once, during the author’s teaching career, in end of semester examinations of a university first year undergraduate introductory anatomy and physiology course or a physical science course for health science stu- dents to support their anatomy and physiology study. Consequently they reflect the author’s choice of content. Students enrolled in the courses for which these ques- tions were written include nursing, midwifery, paramedic, physiotherapy, occupa- tional therapy, nutrition and dietetics, health science students, exercise science students and students taking the course as an elective. Often, the students did not have an extensive background in science from their secondary schooling. Some knowledge of physical science is required to understand physiology; hence, physical science questions are included. Students without some background knowledge in chemistry and physics will find such questions challenging and will need to work a little harder to develop their background knowledge. The boundary between chem- istry and biochemistry is not distinct; nevertheless, chemistry is implicit in physiol- ogy. Furthermore, the physics of the body becomes physiology so gradually that sometimes the boundary between the two is only noticed after it has been crossed. Some questions were difficult to categorise and may span two (or more) catego- ries. Furthermore, in order to answer some questions, you may need knowledge drawn from other “sections” of anatomy different from the name of the section in v vi Preface which the question appears. This is not a bad thing as it emphasises the connected nature of human anatomy and physiology. Each question is unique (there are no duplicates). However, many questions will be examining the same (or similar) material albeit with a differently worded question or different choice of answers. If the questions are to be used to compile an examination, then care should be taken to exclude questions that are too similar to already selected ones. On the other hand, if the questions are to be used for instruction or study purposes, I would suggest including several similar questions in consecutive order to emphasise the point and to give the student practice. Advice to the Exam Candidate The correct choice of answer for each question is provided. Accompanying the cor- rect choice is a justification for the choice or an explanation of the correct answer and sometimes of why the other choices are incorrect. The degree of difficulty var- ies, but not by intentional design. The perception of difficulty depends on that part of science that the question examines, the level of scientific background brought to the course by the student and their level of studious preparation for the examination. There is only one best correct answer for each of the multiple choice questions among the four choices presented. However, there may be more than one correct answer. You must choose the best one. In an examination, never leave a question unanswered. If you cannot decide on an answer, guess at it (after eliminating any choices that you deem to be incorrect). That is, you will be rewarded for the ability to decrease the number of choices from which you are guessing, from 4 to 3 or 2. In marking multiple choice questions, I suggest that that one mark be allocated for a correct answer and that a quarter of a mark be deducted for a wrong answer or an unanswered question. Deducting a quarter mark will reduce the score that would be gained by selecting an answer from the four choices purely at random (i.e. guess- ing), from about 25 % to about 6 %. Not to deduct a quarter mark is, in my opinion, unsound. Be aware of questions that are asked in the negative. That is, those that have NOT true; or FALSE; or INCORRECT; or EXCEPT one, in the stem. In this case you are seeking a statement that is wrong in order to answer the question. Do not be intimi- dated by arithmetical calculations. The calculation itself will be simple. Deciding what to add, multiply or divide with what, is the tricky part. Some questions have been paraphrased from those published in the third edition of the book Human Science: Matter and Energy in the Human Body (Caon, M., & Hickman, R. (2003), Crawford House Australia Publishing, Belair South Australia), and are used with the authors’ permission. Bedford Park, SA, Australia Martin Caon Preface vii Bibliography Textbooks suitable for use in an introductory anatomy and physiology course. Later editions may exist, and earlier editions will suffice: Caon, M. & Hickman, R. (2003) Human Science: Matter and Energy in the Human Body 3rd ed, Crawford House Australia Publishing, Belair South Australia. ISBN 2 Marieb, E.N & Hoehn K.N. (2015) Human Anatomy & Physiology 10th ed, Pearson Martini, F.H., Nath, J.L. & Bartholomew, E. F. (2015) Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology 10th ed, Pearson McKinley, M.P. Oloughlin, V.D. & Bidle T.S. (2013) Anatomy & Physiology An Integrative Approach, McGraw Hill Patton, K.T. & Thibodeau, G.A. (2016) Anatomy & Physiology 9th ed, Elsevier Saladin, K.S. (2012) Anatomy & Physiology: The unity of form and function 6th ed, McGraw Hill Tortora, G.J. & Derrickson, B. (2012) Principles of Anatomy & Physiology 13th ed, Wiley Van De Graff, K.M. & Fox, S.I. (1999) Concepts of human Anatomy & Physiology 5th ed, WCB VanPutte, C. Regan, A. Russo, A. & Seeley, R. (2016?) Seeley’s Anatomy & Physiology 11th ed, McGraw Hill Contents 1 Organisation of the Body........................................................................ 1 2 Cells and Tissues ..................................................................................... 7 2.1 Cells and Tissues ........................................................................... 7 2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis) ................................... 27 3 Measurement, Errors and Data ............................................................. 35 4 Chemistry for Physiology ....................................................................... 43 4.1 Atoms and Molecules .................................................................... 43 4.2 Solutions ........................................................................................ 52 4.3 Diffusion and Osmosis................................................................... 61 4.4 Tonicity, Moles and Osmoles......................................................... 69 4.5 Acids, Bases and Buffers ............................................................... 79 4.6 Organic Chemistry and Macromolecules ...................................... 93 5 Integument............................................................................................... 105 6 Homeostasis ............................................................................................. 119 7 Skeleton and Joints ................................................................................. 125 8 Muscles..................................................................................................... 143 9 Gastro-Intestinal System ........................................................................ 161 10 Endocrine System.................................................................................... 191 11 Renal System ........................................................................................... 211 12 Cardiovascular System ........................................................................... 237 12.1 Blood.............................................................................................. 237 12.2 Heart .............................................................................................. 250 12.3 Blood Vessels................................................................................. 262 12.4 Pressure: The Physics of Pressure ................................................. 274 ix x Contents 12.5 Pressure Applied to the Cardiovascular System 286 12.6 Blood Pressure and Its Control 297 13 Respiratory System 315 13.1 Anatomy and Physiology 315 13.2 Pressure Applied to the Respiratory System 335 14 Nervous System 347 14.1 Cells and Action Potential 347 14.2 Brain and Spinal Cord Anatomy 360 14.3 Autonomic System, Neurotransmitters, Reflexes 377 14.4 Special Senses (Eye & Ear) 389 14.4.1 Eye 389 14.4.2 Ear 397 15 Reproductive System 405 16 Waves, Light Waves, Sound Waves, Ultrasound (The Physics Of) 419 16.1 Waves 419 16.2 Light Waves 424 16.3 Sound 429 16.4 Ultrasound 432 17 Ionising Radiation 437 17.1 Medical Imaging with X-Radiation 437 17.2 Radioactivity, Radiotherapy, Nuclear Medicine, Radiation Safety 445 18 Electricity 465 19 Biomechanics 475 20 Energy and Heat 493 Chapter 1 Organisation of the Body A large part of beginning the study of anatomy and physiology is learning the spe- cialised words that are used. This new terminology may seem daunting but the chal- lenge lies in its unfamiliarity rather than its difficulty of comprehension. You must expect to encounter a lot of new words and be prepared to learn them over the course of your study. Many of the words contain information as the words are con- structed with a prefix and a suffix or a stem that identifies the word as referring to a specific part of anatomy or physiology. This sometimes makes the words rather long or unusual. You should know what the anatomical position of the body is and in what direc- tion the transverse, sagittal & coronal planes of the body lie. Directional terms such as: proximal/distal; deep/superficial; superior/inferior; lateral/medial; anterior/pos- terior; caudal/cephalic allow the location of one anatomical feature to be placed relative to another. The dorsal and ventral body cavities are located on different sides of the body and contain different organs. For ease of communication, the abdomen is divided into nine regions: right hypochondriac, epigastric, left hypo- chondriac, right lumbar, umbilical, left lumbar, right inguinal, hypogastric (or pubic), left inguinal regions. You should know the difference between physiology and anatomy and the definitions of metabolism, anabolism and catabolism. 1. Which of the listed terms is described by: “All the chemical processes that take place in the organelles and cytoplasm the cells of the body”? A. Metabolism B. Cellular respiration C. Homeostasis D. Physiology Answer is A: The quoted statement is a definition of metabolism © Springer Science+Business Media Singapore 2016 1 M. Caon, Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and Physiology, DOI 10.1007/978-981-10-2332-3_1 2 1 Organisation of the Body 2. Which major organ lies deep to the right hypochondriac region? A. The stomach B. The spleen C. The liver D. The duodenum Answer is C: hypochondriac = below the rib cartilage; liver is located mostly on the right side. 3. Which plane of the body divides it into dorsal and ventral regions? A. Transverse B. Axial C. Coronal D. Sagittal Answer is C: dorsal and ventral = front and back – a coronal section so divides the body into these sections. 4. To which of the following does the “tissue level” of structural organisation refer? A. atoms, ions, molecules and electrolytes B. mitochondria, ribosomes, nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum C. nephron, alveolus, villus, lobule D. muscle, nervous, connective, epithelial Answer is D: the listed structures are the four major tissue types. 5. The directional term “superior” in anatomy means which of the following? A. cephalic B. ventral C. caudal D. dorsal Answer is A: cephalic refers to the head region. While superior refers to being closer to the head than is the other anatomical structure in question. 6. Which of the following is the best definition of physiology? A. The microscopic study of tissues and cells B. The study of how the body works. C. All the chemical processes that take place in the organelles of the body’s cells. D. The body’s automatic tendency to maintain a relatively constant internal environment. Answer is B: physiology is indeed the study of how the (healthy) body functions. 1 Organisation of the Body 3 7. The “anatomical position” could be described as which of the following? A. Lying down prone B. Lying down supine C. Standing displaying the ventral surface of the body D. Standing with arms and legs abducted Answer is C: this is the best answer. Standing is required, as is having the arms hanging parallel to the sides, with palms facing forward. 8. Which choice best describes the location of the majority of the musculo-skeletal system? A. It is in the dorsal cavity B. It is in the ventral cavity C. It is in the abdomino-pelvic cavity D. It is not located in a body cavity Answer is D: the musculo-skeletal system is located in the arms and legs, and surrounding, but outside of the abdomino-pelvic, thoracic and the dorsal cavities. 9. Which of the following is/are the contents of the ventral cavity? A. heart and lungs B. brain and spinal cord C. viscera D. gut, kidneys, liver, pancreas, spleen, bladder, internal reproductive organs. Answer is C: this is the best answer. It is a collective term for all organs in the thoracic and abdomino-pelvic cavities. 10. Which of the stated relationships is correct? A. the heart is inferior to the clavicle B. the shoulder is distal to the carpals C. the phalanges are proximal to the metacarpals D. the eye is medial to the eyebrows Answer is A: The heart is indeed below (inferior) to the clavicle. All other choices are wrong. 11. Which of the following is/are the contents of the dorsal body cavity? A. heart and lungs B. brain and spinal cord C. viscera D. gut, kidneys, liver, pancreas, spleen, bladder, internal reproductive organs. Answer is B: dorsal refers to the back, the cavity enclosed by the skull and vertebrae. 4 1 Organisation of the Body 12. Which of the stated relationships is correct? A. the heart is superior to the large intestine B. the shoulder is distal to the metacarpals C. the phalanges are proximal to the carpals D. the eye is medial to the nose Answer is A: the heart is indeed above (superior) to the intestine. All other answers are wrong. 13. What is the study of how body parts function called? A. histology B. physiology C. homeostasis D. metabolism Answer is B: physiology refers to function 14. Which of the following correctly describes the two named body parts? A. the elbow is proximal to the shoulder B. the phalanges are distal to the carpals C. the ribs are proximal to the sternum D. the elbow is distal to the knee Answer is B: phalanges (finger bones) are indeed further from the trunk along the arm, than are the carpals (wrist bones) 15. Which one of the following statements is correct? A. the diaphragm separates the brain and spinal cord B. the ventral cavity contains the male and female reproductive system C. the abdomino-pelvic cavity contains the spinal cord. D. the dorsal cavity contains the brain and spinal cord Answer is D: dorsal means back and that is the cavity with spinal cord and brain. B is incorrect as the genitalia are outside the ventral cavity. 16. Complete the sentence correctly: “Cervical vertebrae are…… A. superior to the rib cage. B. inferior to the thoracic vertebrae. C. located between the thoracic and sacral vertebrae. D. fused into a single bone called the sacrum. Answer is A: cervix refers to “neck”. The cervical vertebrae are in the neck hence are above (superior) to the rib cage. 17. The dorsal body cavity contains which of the following organs? A. The brain. B. The brain and spinal cord. 1 Organisation of the Body 5 C. The brain, spinal cord and heart. D. The brain, spinal cord, heart and kidneys. Answer is B: Dorsal refers to the back and is opposite to ventral. Only the brain and spinal cord occupy the dorsal cavity. All other answers are incorrect. 18. What does the process known as anabolism refer to? A. the use of energy for producing chemical substances. B. the breaking down phase of metabolism. C. all the chemical process that take place in the organelles of the cells. D. the supply of nutrients to the body’s cells. Answer is A: anabolism refers to the process of constructing/building mole- cules (think anabolic steroids). B refers to catabolism. C refers to metabolism. 19. To what does the term “hypochondriac” refer? A. A condition of having too few chondria. B. The region of abdomen inferior to the ribs. C. A person who often complains of an ailment. D. Having insufficient cartilage in the knees. Answer is B: In this case “hypo-” means below, while “-chondr” refers to the cartilage joining the ribs to the sternum (the costal cartilages). The regions of the abdomen immediately inferior to these rib cartilages (on the left and right sides of the body) is what is being referred to 20. If a medical image displays internal anatomy in mid-sagittal section, which of the following describes the section? A. A vertical section through the nose and umbilicus that divides the body into right and left halves. B. A cross-section through the midriff at about the level of the liver. C. A cross-section through the upper chest at about the level of the shoulders. D. A vertical section through the midpoint of the clavicle and through either the right or left thigh. Answer is A: A Sagittal section divides the body into left and right portions. A mid sagittal section means that the dividing line is in the vertical mid line of the body so that the halves are equal. 21. Which of the following best describes the “anatomical position”? A. Standing vertically, arms held horizontally, legs apart so that the tips of the head, hands and feet lie on an imaginary circle, drawn around the body. B. Standing “to attention”, with hands held so that thumbs are ventral while the fifth digit is dorsal. 6 1 Organisation of the Body C. Standing “at ease” with hands clasped behind your back while adjacent and dorsal to the sacrum. D. Standing vertically, arms parallel and lateral to the ribs with hands inferior to the elbows and supinated. Answer is D: The anatomical position is achieved when standing with feet comfortably apart while displaying the ventral surface of the head, body and forearms to the same direction (forwards). 22. Which term describes the location of the adrenal glands with reference to the kidneys? A. proximal B. distal C. superior D. inferior Answer is C: The adrenal glands are on the cephalic side of the kidneys. Being closer to the head, they are termed “superior to the kidneys”. 23. Which of the following terms is NOT used to identify a region of the abdomen? A. left hypochondriac B. hypogastric C. epigastric D. right sacral Answer is D: Right sacral is not a region on the anterior surface of the abdomen. 24. What structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity? A. The mediastinum B. The diaphragm C. The peritoneum D. The pylorus Answer is B: The muscular diaphragm physically separates these two ventral cavities. Chapter 2 Cells and Tissues 2.1 Cells and Tissues Cells are composed of their cytoplasm, which includes the cytosol and organelles; the nucleus and the surrounding plasma membrane. You should know that the plasma membrane is a double layer of phospholipid molecules and that these mol- ecules have a hydrophilic end and a hydrophobic end. The plasma membrane con- tains proteins including the ATPase (the sodium-potassium pump) which moves sodium ions out of the cell while moving potassium ions into the cell. You should know the names and function of some of the organelles. For example you should know that mitochondria produce ATP and that ribosomes synthesise proteins from amino acids. You will become familiar with the names of many cells. Often a word can be recognised as the name of a cell because it ends in “-cyte” or, if it is an immature cell, by ending in “-blast”. Four major types of tissue are identified in the body: epithelial, connective, muscle and neural tissues. Of course there are many sub- types within these categories. For example epithelial tissue may be squamous, cuboidal, columnar or glandular. Muscle may be skeletal, smooth or cardiac. Connective tissue is quite varied and you should be aware of the many different examples of tissue that are categorised as “connective”. For example, blood, bone, dermis, cartilage and tendon are all connective tissue. 1. Which structure within the cell produces ATP (adenosine triphosphate)? A. the mitochondria B. the nucleus C. peripheral proteins D. the endoplasmic reticulum Answer is A: This is a basic function of mitochondria. All other answers are wrong. © Springer Science+Business Media Singapore 2016 7 M. Caon, Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and Physiology, DOI 10.1007/978-981-10-2332-3_2 8 2 Cells and Tissues 2. Which of the following is NOT a component of the cell plasma membrane? A. cholesterol B. proteins C. microfilaments D. phospholipids Answer is C: microfilaments occur inside the cell. 3. Which list below contains the four types of tissue? A. extracellular fluid, skeletal tissue, glandular tissue, connective tissue. B. extracellular fluid, muscle tissue, glandular tissue, cartilaginous tissue. C. neural tissue, skeletal tissue, epithelial tissue, cartilaginous tissue. D. Neural tissue, muscle tissue, epithelial tissue, connective tissue. Answer is D: These are the four types. Extracellular fluid is not a tissue. Cartilage is a type of connective tissue. 4. Except for one, the following are types of cells. Which one is NOT a type of cell? A. platelets B. leucocytes C. macrophages D. osteoblasts Answer is A: Platelets are fragments of a cell (a megakaryocyte) bound by a membrane. 5. In which part of a cell does the process of making ATP from oxygen and glu- cose take place? A. lysosomes B. ribosomes C. mitochondria D. golgi apparatus Answer is C: ATP production is the function of mitochondria. 6. Which of the following is a function of membrane proteins? A. to process lipids and proteins for secretion through the plasma membrane B. to act as receptors for hormones C. to synthesise proteins from amino acids D. to act as a cytoskeleton to support and shape the cell Answer is B: One function of membrane proteins is to receive (amino acid based) hormones that cannot pass through the plasma membrane. 2.1 Cells and Tissues 9 7. What is the difference between simple squamous cells and simple columnar cells? A. squamous cells are flattened while columnar cells are taller than they are wide. B. simple squamous cells are one layer thick while simple columnar cells are several layers thick. C. simple squamous cells are epithelial tissue while simple columnar cells are connective tissue. D. squamous cells are flattened while columnar cells are cuboidal. Answer is A: The names of the cells contains a description of their shape: either flat, or like columns. Simple refers to a single layer of cells 8. Which of the following is NOT an example of a cell? A. macrophages B. lysosomes C. plasmocytes D. chondroblasts Answer is B: the suffix “–some” refers to an organelle within a cell. The other suffixes all indicate a type of cell. 9. Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a wide variety of molecules? A. Lysosomes B. Ribosomes C. Centrosomes D. Golgi complex Answer is A: the prefix “lyso-” refers to the ability to dissolve or destroy mol- ecules or cells. 10. Which form of transport through the plasma membrane requires the expendi- ture of energy by the cell? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Osmosis C. Active transport D. Diffusion Answer is C: The term “active” implies using energy (in the form of ATP) to move a molecule against its concentration gradient, while the other processes are all passive. 11. Which of the tissue types below consists of a single layer of cells? A. stratified squamous epithelial tissue B. glandular epithelium 10 2 Cells and Tissues C. areolar connective tissue D. simple columnar epithelial tissue Answer is D: the word “simple” indicates a single layer of cells. Stratified means several layers (or strata) of cells. 12. One of the following is NOT a serous membrane. Which one? A. pleura B. peritoneum C. mucosa D. pericardium Answer is C: mucosa is a mucus membrane (& secretes mucus) 13. Which of the following is NOT made predominantly from epithelial tissue? A. In the dermis B. In exocrine glands C. In endocrine glands D. In the endothelium of blood vessels Answer is A: The dermis contains connective tissue, nervous tissue & muscle as well as epithelial tissue. 14. What are tendons and ligaments composed of? A. Dense connective tissue B. Liquid connective tissue C. Muscular tissue D. Epithelial tissue Answer is A: tendons & ligaments are dense CT. This is strong as there is a high proportion of fibres. 15. What is the composition of the intercellular matrix in connective tissue? A. Cells and fibres B. Serous and mucus membranes and lamina propria C. Protein fibres and ground substance D. Interstitial fluid Answer is C: “intercellular” means between cells. So matrix is fibres & ground substance (but no cells). 16. Which statement about the plasma membrane is INCORRECT? A. It is selectively permeable. B. It is composed of two layers of glycoprotein molecules. C. It contains receptors for specific signalling molecules. 2.1 Cells and Tissues 11 D. The plasma membranes of adjacent cells are held together by desmosomes. Answer is B: The PM is indeed made of two layers, but they are phospholipid (not glycoprotein) molecules. 17. Which of the following is NOT epithelial tissue? A. the epidermis B. glandular tissue C. the internal lining of blood vessels D. the dermis Answer is D: The dermis contains some of all four types of tissue. 18. Which of the following is NOT a cell found in connective tissue? A. adipocytes B. chondroblasts C. keratinocytes D. osteoblasts Answer is C: Keratinocytes are in the epidermis which is epithelial tissue. The other cell types occur in fat, cartilage and bone. 19. What tissue has cells that are closely packed and that have one surface attached to a basement membrane and the other free to a space? A. epithelial tissue B. muscle tissue C. connective tissue D. nervous tissue Answer is A: This is a definition of epithelial tissue. 20. What is the name of the mechanism that ensures that there is a higher concen- tration of sodium ions in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid? A. Facilitated diffusion B. The sodium-potassium pump C. Secondary active transport D. Osmosis Answer is B: The “pump” (or ATPase) transports Na+ out and K+ into the cell. 21. What are lysosomes, centrosomes and ribosomes example of? A. stem cells B. organelles within a cell C. sensory receptors in the dermis D. exocrine glands Answer is B: the suffix “–some” refers to small body or organelle within a cell. 12 2 Cells and Tissues 22. What does simple columnar epithelial tissue refer to? Tissue with A. a single layer of cells longer than they are wide. B. a single layer of cells whose length, breadth and depth are about the same size. C. several layers of cells, all of the same type. D. several layers of cells but without a basement membrane. Answer is A: simple = one layer. Columnar means oblong or shaped like a column. 23. Which of the following is NOT an example of connective tissue? A. blood B. bone C. tendon D. epidermis Answer is D: the epidermis (on top of the dermis) is epithelial tissue. 24. What is the function of phospholipids in the plasma membrane? A. to maintain the intracellular fluid at a similar composition to that of the interstitial fluid. B. to form channels to selectively allow passage of small molecules. C. to act as receptors for signalling chemicals. D. to present a barrier to the passage of water-soluble molecules. Answer is D: molecules that are soluble in water cannot pass through lipid (fat). So the phospholipids are a barrier. The functions described by B. & C. are per- formed by other molecules in the plasma membrane. 25. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue? A. plasma cells B. leucocytes C. keratinocytes D. chondroblasts Answer is C: keratinocytes produce keratin, the protein of the epidermis, which is epithelial tissue. 26. Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell? A. integral proteins B. glycoproteins C. plasma proteins D. peripheral proteins Answer is C: as the name implies, plasma proteins are found in the blood plasma. Not to be confused with the plasma membrane. 2.1 Cells and Tissues 13 27. A major role for mitochondria is to A. transcribe the information in DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) B. produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate) C. synthesise proteins from amino acids D. use enzymes to lyse molecules Answer is B: ATP is only produced within the mitochondria. 28. Choose the tissue below that is one of the four primary types of body tissue. A. epidermal tissue B. epithelial tissue C. interstitial tissue D. osseous tissue Answer is B: epithelial is a major tissue type (as is muscle, nervous & connective) 29. What are the primary types of tissue in the body? A. Muscle, nervous, connective and epithelial B. Muscle, nervous, connective, osseous and epithelial C. Muscle, nervous, connective, osseous, blood and epithelial D. Muscle, nervous, connective, glandular and epithelial Answer is A: There are 4 major types (not 5 or 6). Osseous & blood are also connective, while glandular tissue is also epithelial. 30. What is the name of the membrane that surrounds the lungs? A. visceral peritoneum B. parietal peritoneum C. visceral pleura D. dura mater Answer is C: Pleura is around the lung, while visceral refers to the layer of the pleura that is attached to the lung surface. 31. What is a role performed by mitochondria? A. contain enzymes capable of digesting molecules B. produce ATP C. synthesise proteins D. synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids & cholesterol Answer is B: mitochondria produce ATP. The other tasks are performed by lysosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum respectively. 14 2 Cells and Tissues 32. Which of the following is NOT found in the plasma membrane? A. proteins B. cholesterol C. endoplasmic reticulum D. phospholipids Answer is C: endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle and found within the cell. 33. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue? A. mast cells B. adipocytes C. chondroblasts D. keratinocytes Answer is D: These cells produce keratin, the protein of the stratum corneum 34. Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell? A. phospholipid B. glycoprotein C. chromatin D. cholesterol Answer is C: chromatin makes up chromosomes. 35. A major role for mitochondria is to A. synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids & steroids B. deliver lipids and proteins to plasma membrane for secretion C. synthesise proteins from amino acids D. produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate) Answer is D: mitochondria produce ATP from glucose 36. Choose the tissue below that is NOT one of the four primary types of body tissue. A. connective tissue B. muscular tissue C. nervous tissue D. osseous tissue Answer is D: osseous tissue (or bone) is a connective tissue 37. What is the purpose of mitochondria? A. to store the nucleolus and chromatin B. to produce adenosine triphosphate 2.1 Cells and Tissues 15 C. to support and shape the cell. D. they produce enzymes to break down molecules Answer is B: Mitochondria are the site of ATP production 38. The plasma membrane of a cell contains molecules that have a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end What are they called? A. phospholipids B. cholesterol C. integral proteins D. glycoproteins Answer is A: the phosphate end is hydrophilic (water soluble) while the lipid end is hydrophobic (insoluble in water). 39. Adipocytes are found in which type of tissue? A. muscle tissue B. epithelial tissue C. nervous tissue D. connective tissue Answer is D: adipocytes are found in fat (adipose tissue) which is a type of connective tissue. 40. What is the role of mitochondria? To: A. function in cell division B. synthesise proteins C. form part of the plasma membrane D. synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids and steroids. Answer is C: mitochondria produce ATP 41. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue? A. mast cells B. adipocytes C. chondroblasts D. melanocytes Answer is D: melanocytes produce melanin to protect the skin from ultraviolet radiation and it results in tanning of the skin. 42. What is the difference between “loose” connective tissue (CT) and “dense” connective tissue? A. Fibres occupy most of the volume in dense CT B. Dense CT includes cartilage, loose CT does not. 16 2 Cells and Tissues C. Loose CT has a good blood supply while dense CT does not. D. Loose CT has no fibres (and dense CT does). Answer is A: the preponderance of fibres is what makes the CT “dense”. Cartilage is classified as supportive CT. 43. Facilitated diffusion refers to the process of A. movement along a concentration gradient assisted by protein carrier molecules. B. movement of ions and molecules along a concentration gradient. C. transport of molecules and ions against their concentration gradient. D. water movement through a semi-permeable membrane Answer is A: facilitated refers to the role of the protein carriers. The other choices refer to diffusion, active transport and osmosis respectively 44. What do fibroblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts and haemocytoblasts have in common? A. they are all types of white blood cell. B. they are all macrophages. C. they are all immature cells. D. they are all types of epithelial cell. Answer is C: the suffix “-blast” implies that these cells have not yet finished their differentiation. That is are immature. 45. Which is NOT true of connective tissue (CT)? A. the cells are closely packed B. the tissue contains protein fibres and ground substance. C. types include loose CT, dense CT and liquid CT. D. CT contains white blood cells. Answer is A: being close packed in a property of epithelial tissue. In CT the cells are widely spaced, being separated by the ground substance. 46. Active transport across the plasma membrane may be described by which statement? A. active transport requires energy from ATP. B. active transport is also known as endocytosis. C. active transport moves molecules along their concentration gradient. D. active transport is the movement of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane.