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NCLEX RN EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2023 UPDATE!!!

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Question: 31 A client had a myocardial infarction 5 days ago. His physician has ordered an echocardiogram to determine how his myocardial infarction has affected his ventricular wall motion. When the client asks if this test is painful, an appropriate response is: A. "No, but you must be able to ride on a stationary bicycle while the test is being performed." B. "No, but you will have to lie still and the gel that is used may be cool." C. "Yes, but your physician will be there and will order pain medicine for you." D. "Your physician has ordered medicine, which you will be given before you go for the test, which will make you sleepy." Answer: B Explanation: (A) Riding a stationary bicycle or walking on a treadmill is done during a stress test. (B) During an echocardiogram, the client must lie supine while a technician performs the test. To perform the test, the technician uses a conductive gel and a transducer to obtain ultrasound tracings of the heart. (C) A physician need not be present during an echocardiogram, and it is neither invasive nor painful. (D) There is no premedication required for an echocardiogram. Question: 32 A 55-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. His physician orders a low- sodium diet for him. When he asks, "What does salt have to do with high blood pressure?” the nurse’s initial response would be: A. "The reason is not known why hypertension is associated with a high-salt diet." B. "Large amounts of salt in your diet can cause you to retain fluid, which increases your blood pressure." C. "Salt affects your blood vessels and causes your blood pressure to be high." D. "Salt is needed to maintain blood pressure, but too much causes hypertension." Answer: B Explanation: (A) This response is untrue. (B) Decreasing salt intake reduces fluid retention and decreases blood pressure. (C) Salt does not have an effect on the blood vessels themselves, but on fluid retention, which accompanies salt intake. (D) This response is untrue. Question: 33 A 19-year-old client fell off a ladder approximately 3 ft to the ground. He did not lose consciousness but was taken to the emergency department by a friend to have a scalp laceration sutured. The nurse instructs the client to: A. Clean the sutured laceration twice a day with povidone- iodine (Betadine) B. Remove his scalp sutures after 5 days C. Return to the hospital immediately if he develops confusion, nausea, or vomiting D. Take meperidine 50 mg po q46h prn for headache Answer: C Explanation: (A) Povidone-iodine is very irritating to skin and should not be routinely used. (B) Sutures should not be removed by the client. (C) Confusion, nausea, vomiting, and behavioral changes may indicate increasing intracranial pressure as a result of intracerebral bleeding. (D) Use of a narcotic opiate such as meperidine is not recommended in clients with a possible head injury because it may produce sedation, pupil changes, euphoria, and respiratory depression, which may mask the signs of increasing intracranial pressure. Question: 34 A male client has asthma and his physician has prescribed beclomethasone (Vanceril) 3 puffs tid in addition to his other medications. After taking his beclomethasone, the client should be instructed to: A. Clean his inhaler with warm water and soak it in a10% bleach solution B. Drink a glass of water C. Sit and rest D. Use his bronchodilator inhaler Answer: B Explanation: (A) Inhalers should be cleaned once a day. They should be taken apart, washed in warm water, and dried according to manufacturer’s instructions. Soaking in bleach is inappropriate. (B) A common side effect of inhaled steroid preparations is oral candidal infection. This can be prevented by drinking a glass of water or gargling after using a steroid inhaler. (C) There is nothing wrong with sitting and resting after using a steroid inhaler, but it is not necessary. (D) If a person is using a steroid inhaler as well as a bronchodilator inhaler, the bronchodilator shouldalways be used first. The reason for this is that the bronchodilator opens up the person’s airways so that when the steroid inhaler is used next, there will be better distribution of medication. Question: 35 A 70-year-old client has pneumonia and has just had a respiratory arrest. He has just been intubated with an 8- mm endotracheal tube. During auscultation of his chest, breath sounds were found to be absent on the left side. The nurse identifies the most likely cause of this as: A. Inappropriate endotracheal tube size B. Left-sided pneumothorax C. Right mainstem bronchus intubation D. Pneumonia Answer: C Explanation: (A) Appropriate endotracheal tube sizes for adults range from 7.08.5 mm. (B) Pneumothorax could be indicated by an absence of breath sounds on the affected side. However, in a recently intubated client, the first priority would be to consider tube malposition. (C) During intubation, the right mainstem bronchus can be inadvertently entered if the endotracheal tube is inserted too far. Left mainstem bronchus intubation almost never occurs because of the angle of the left mainstem bronchus. (D) Breath sounds for someone with pneumonia may be decreased over the areas of consolidation. However, in a recently intubated client, the first priority would be to consider tube malposition. Question: 36 A 55-year-old client is unconscious, and his physician has decided to begin tube feeding him using a smallbore silicone feeding tube (Keofeed, Duo- Tube). After the tube is inserted, the nurse identifies the most reliable way to confirm appropriate placement is to: A. Aspirate gastric contents B. Auscultate air insufflated through the tube C. Obtain a chest x-ray D. Place the tip of the tube under water and observe for air bubbles Answer: C Explanation: (A) Aspiration of gastric contents is usually a reliable way to verify tube placement. However, if the client has dark respiratory secretions from bleeding, tube feedings could be mistaken for respiratory secretions; in other words, aspirating an empty stomach is less reliable in this instance. In addition, it is common for small-bore feeding tubes to collapse when suction pressure is applied. (B) Insufflation of air into large-bore nasogastric tubes can usually be clearly heard. In small-bore tubes, it is more difficult to hear air, and it is difficult to distinguish between air in the stomach and air in the esophagus. (C) A chest x-ray is the most reliable means to determine placement of small-bore nasogastric tubes. (D) Observing for air bubbles when the tip is held under water is an unreliable means to determine correct tube placement for all types of nasogastric tubes. Air may come from both the respiratory tract and the stomach, and the client who is breathing shallowly may not force air out of the tube into the water. Question: 37 A client was admitted with rib fractures and a pneumothorax, which were sustained as a result of a motor vehicle accident. A chest tube was placed on the left side to reinflate his lung, and he was transferred to a client unit. Twenty-four hours after admission he continues to have bloody sputum, develops increasing hypoxemia, and his chest x-ray shows patchy infiltrates. The nurse analyzes these symptoms as being consistent with: A. Pneumonia B. Pulmonary contusions C. Pulmonary edema D. Tension pneumothorax Answer: B Explanation: (A) Pneumonia may be reflected by patchy infiltrates. In addition, fever, an increasing white blood cell count, and copious sputum production would be present. (B) Blunt chest traumacauses a bruising process in which interstitial and alveolar edema and hemorrhage occur. This is manifest by gradual deterioration over 24 hours of arterial blood gases and the continued production of bloody sputum. Patchy infiltrates are evident on chest xray 24 hours postinjury. (C) Pulmonary edema usually results from left heart failure. It is manifest by pink, frothy sputum; increasing dyspnea; tachycardia; and crackles on auscultation. (D) Tension pneumothorax is a potential complication for someone with rib fractures and a chest tube. It is manifest by diminished breath sounds on the affected side, rapidly deteriorating arterial blood gases in the presence of an open airway, and shock that is unexplained by other injuries. Question: 38 A 66-year-old female client has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes per day for 20 years. Her arterial blood gases on room air are as follows: pH 7.35; PO2 70 mm Hg; PCO2 55 mm Hg; HCO3 32 mEq/L. These blood gases reflect: A. Compensated metabolic acidosis B. Compensated respiratory acidosis C. Compensated respiratory alkalosis D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis Answer: B Explanation: (A) In compensated metabolic acidosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is decreased, and the HCO3level is decreased. The client’s primary alteration is an inability to remove excess acid via the kidneys. The lungs compensate by hyperventilating and decreasing PCO2. (B) In compensated respiratory acidosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is elevated, and the HCO3level is elevated. The client’s primary alteration is an inability to remove CO2from the lungs, so over time, the kidneys increase reabsorption of HCO3to buffer the CO2. (C) In compensated respiratory alkalosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is decreased, and the HCO3level is decreased. The client’s primary alteration is hyperventilation, which decreases PCO2. The client compensates by increasing the excretion of HCO3from the body. (D) In uncompensated respiratory acidosis, the pH level is decreased, the PCO2level is increased, and the HCO3level is normal. The client’s primary alteration is an inability to remove CO2from the lungs. The kidneys have not compensated by increasing HCO3reabsorption. Question: 39 A female client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has presented in the emergency department with cough productive of yellow sputum and increasing shortness of breath. On room air, her blood gases are as follows: pH 7.30 mm Hg, PCO2 60 mm Hg, PO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3 32 mEq/L. These arterial blood gases reflect: A. Compensated respiratory acidosis B. Normal blood gases C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis Answer: D Explanation: (A) In compensated respiratory acidosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is elevated, and the HCO3level is elevated. The client’s primary alteration is an inability to remove CO2from the lungs, so over time, the kidneys increase reabsorption of HCO3to buffer the CO2. (B) Normal ranges for arterial blood gases for adults and children are as follows: pH 7.357.45, PO mm Hg, PCO23545 mm Hg, HCO32128 mEq/L. (C) In uncompensated metabolic acidosis the pH level is decreased, the PCO2level is normal, and the HCO3level is decreased. The client’s primary alteration is an inability to remove excess acid via the kidneys. The lungs are unable to clear the increased acid. (D) In uncompensated respiratory acidosis, the pH level is decreased, the PCO2level is increased, and the HCO3level is normal. In a person with long-standing COPD, the HCO3level will rise gradually over time to compensate for the gradually increasing PCO2, and the person’s pH level will be normal. When a person with COPD becomes acutely ill, the kidneys do not have time to increase the reabsorption of HCO3, so the person’s pH level will reflect acidosis even though the HCO3is elevated. Question: 40 A 19-year-old client has sustained a C-7 fracture, which resulted in his spinal cord being partially transected. By 2 weeks’ postinjury, his neck has been surgically stabilized, and he has been transferred from the intensive care unit. A potential life-threatening complication the nurse monitors the client for is: A. Autonomic dysreflexia B. Bradycardia C. Central cord syndrome

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Publié le
24 avril 2023
Nombre de pages
50
Écrit en
2022/2023
Type
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NCLEX RN EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2023 UPDATE!!!




Question:1
A client was prescribed a major tranquilizer 2 months ago. One month ago she was placed on benztropine
(Cogentin). What would indicate that benztropine therapy is effective?
A. Smooth, coordinated voluntary movement
B. Tremors
C. Rigidity
D. Muscle weakness


Answer: A

Explanation:
(A) Benztropine is prescribed to decrease or alleviate extrapyramidal side effects of major tranquilizers. Smooth,
coordinated voluntary movement indicates minimal extrapyramidal side effects. (B) Tremors are an extrapyramidal
side effect. (C) Rigidity is an extrapyramidal side effect. (D) Muscle weakness is an extrapyramidal side effect.
Question: 2

A client is diagnosed with organic brain disorder. The nursing care should include:
A. Organized, safe environment
B. Long, extended family visits
C. Detailed explanations of procedures
D. Challenging educational programs


Answer: A

Explanation:
(A) A priority nursing goal is attending to the client’s safety and well-being. Reorient frequently, remove
dangerous objects, and maintain consistent environment. (B) Short, frequent visits are recommended to avoid
overstimulation and fatigue. (C) Short, concise, simple explanations are easier to understand. (D) Mental
capability and attention span deficits make learning difficult and frustrating.
Question: 3
A 4-year-old child has Down syndrome. The community health nurse has coordinated a special preschool program.
The nurse’s primary goal is to:
A. Provide respite care for the mother
B. Facilitate optimal development
C. Provide a demanding and challenging educational program
D. Prepare child to enter mainstream education


Answer: B

,Explanation:
(A) Respite care for the family may be needed, but it is not the primary goal of a preschool program. (B)
Facilitation of optimal growth and development is essential for every child. (C) A demanding and challenging
educational program may predispose the child to failure. Children with retardation should begin with simple and
challenging educational programs. (D) Mental retardation associated with Down syndrome may not permit
mainstream education. A preschoolprogram’s primary goal is not preparation for mainstream education but
continuation of optimal development.
Question: 4
A client presents to the psychiatric unit crying hysterically. She is diagnosed with severe anxiety disorder. The first
nursing action is to:
A. Demand that she relax
B. Ask what is the problem
C. Stand or sit next to her
D. Give her something to do


Answer: C

Explanation:
(A) This nursing action is too controlling and authoritative. It could increase the client’s anxiety level. (B) In her
anxiety state, the client cannot rationally identify a problem. (C) This nursing action conveys a message of caring
and security. (D) Giving the client a task would increase her anxiety. This would be a late nursing action.
Question: 5

A schizophrenic is admitted to the psychiatric unit. What affect would the nurse expect to observe?
A. Anger
B. Apathy and flatness
C. Smiling
D. Hostility


Answer: B

Explanation:
(A) Anger is an emotion that is not necessarily present in schizophrenia. (B) Lack of response to or involvement
with environment and distancing are characteristic of schizophrenia. (C) Euphoria is more characteristic of manic-
depressive disorder (bipolar disorder). (D) Hostility is an emotion that is not necessarily present in schizophrenia.
Question: 6

A 16-year-old client reports a weight loss of 20% of her previous weight. She has a history of food binges
followed by self-induced vomiting (purging). The nurse should suspect a diagnosis of:
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Anorexia hysteria
C. Bulimia
D. Conversion reaction


Answer: C

Explanation:
(A) Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-starvation. (B) Anorexia hysteria is not a known disease or disorder.
(C) Bulimia is characterized by food binges and self-induced vomiting. (D) Conversion reaction is a defense
mechanism.
Question: 7

,A 24-year-old client presents to the emergency department protesting "I am God." The nurse identifies this as a:
A. Delusion
B. Illusion
C. Hallucination
D. Conversion


Answer: A

Explanation:
(A) Delusion is a false belief. (B) Illusion is the misrepresentation of a real, external sensory experience. (C)
Hallucination is a false sensory perception involving any of the senses. (D) Conversion is the expression of
intrapsychic conflict through sensory or motor manifestations.
Question: 8
A 30-year-old client has a history of several recent traumatic experiences. She presents at the physician’s office with
a complaint of blindness. Physical exam and diagnostic testing reveal no organic cause. The nurse recognizes this as:
A. Delusion
B. Illusion
C. Hallucination
D. Conversion


Answer: D

Explanation:
(A) The client’s blindness is real. Delusion is a false belief. (B) Illusion is the misrepresentation of a real, external
sensory experience. (C) Hallucination is a false sensory perception involving any of the senses. (D) Conversion is
the expression of intrapsychic conflict through sensory or motor manifestations.
Question: 9
A pregnant client experiences a precipitous delivery. The nursing action during a precipitous delivery is to:
A. Control the delivery by guiding expulsion of fetus
B. Leave the room to call the physician
C. Push against the perineum to stop delivery
D. Cross client’s legs tightly


Answer: A

Explanation:
(A) Controlling the rapid delivery will reduce the risk of fetal injury and perineal lacerations. (B) The nurse should
always remain with a client experiencing a precipitous delivery. (C) Pushing against the perineum may cause fetal
distress. (D) Crossing of legs may cause fetal distress and does not stop the delivery process.
Question: 10
Following a vaginal delivery, the postpartum nurse should observe for:
A. Dystocia, kraurosis
B. Chadwick’s sign
C. Fatigue, hemorrhoids
D. Hemorrhage and infection


Answer: D

Explanation:

, (A) Dystocia is difficult labor. The delivery has occurred. Kraurosis is atrophy and dryness of skin and any mucous
membrane (vulva). (B) Chadwick’s sign is a bluish color of vaginal mucosa suggestive of pregnancy. (C) Fatigue is
a common symptom in the postpartal period. Hemorrhoids may occur with pregnancy. (D) Hemorrhage and
infection are potential complications of vaginal delivery. Hemorrhage may result from retained placental fragments
or soft uterus. Infection may occur from the introduction of organisms into the uterus during the delivery. Question:
1421
A client who is 7 months pregnant is diagnosed with pyelonephritis. The nurse anticipates the physician ordering:
A. Oxytocin
B. Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4)
C. Ampicillin
D. Tetracycline


Answer: C

Explanation:
(A) Oxytocin is prescribed to stimulate uterine contractions. (B) MgSO4is a central nervous system depressant
prescribed to prevent and control convulsions related to preeclampsia. (C) Ampicillin is a penicillin derivative with
no known teratogenic effects. This is the safest antibiotic during pregnancy. (D) Tetracycline stains teeth yellow and
is not as safe as ampicillin during pregnancy.
Question: 11
A newborn is admitted to the newborn nursery with tremors, apnea periods, and poor sucking reflex. The nurse
should suspect:
A. Central nervous system damage
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. These are normal newborn responses to extrauterine life


Answer: B

Explanation:
(A) Central nervous system damage presents as seizures, decreased arousal, and absence of newborn reflexes. (B)
In a diabetic mother, the infant is exposed to high serum glucose. The fetal pancreas produces large amounts of
insulin, which causes hypoglycemia after birth. (C) Hypoglycemia is a common newborn problem. Increased
insulin production causes hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. (D) These are not normal adaptive behaviors to
extrauterine life.
Question: 12
A premature infant needs supplemental O2 therapy. A nursing intervention that reduces the risk of retrolental
fibroplasia is to:
A. Maintain O2at <40%
B. Maintain O2at>40%
C. Give moist O2at>40%
D. Maintain on 100% O2


Answer: A

Explanation:
(A) Retrolental fibroplasia is the result of prolonged exposure to high levels of O2in premature infants.
Complications are hemorrhage and retinal detachment. (B, C, D) O2concentration is too high. Question:
13

A primigravida is at term. The nurse can recognize the second stage of labor by the client’s desire to:
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