2023 ARMY Test Bank Complete Solutions

Promotion Board Study Guide| 333 QUESTIONS| WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION| TEST BANK First paragraph of the NCO creed Correct Answer: No one is more professional than I. I am a noncommissioned officer, a leader of soldiers. As a noncommissioned officer, I realize that I am a member of a time honored corps, which is known as "The Backbone of the Army". I am proud of the Corps of noncommissioned officers and will at all times conduct myself so as to bring credit upon the Corps, the military service, and my country regardless of the situation in which I find myself. I will not use my grade or position to attain pleasure, profit, or personal safety. Second paragraph of the NCO creed Correct Answer: Competence is my watchword. My two basic responsibilities will always be uppermost in my mind - accomplishment of my mission and the welfare of my soldiers. I will strive to remain technically and tactically proficient. I am aware of my role as a noncommissioned officer. I will fulfill my responsibilities inherent in that role. All soldiers are entitled to outstanding leadership; I will provide that leadership. I know my soldiers and I will always place their needs above my own. I will communicate consistently with my soldiers and never leave them uninformed. I will be fair and impartial when recommending both rewards and punishment. Third paragraph of the NCO creed Correct Answer: Officers of my unit will have maximum time to accomplish their duties; they will not have to accomplish mine. I will earn their respect and confidence as well as that of my soldiers. I will be loyal to those with whom I serve; seniors, peers, and subordinates alike. I will exercise initiative by taking appropriate action in the absence of orders. I will not compromise my integrity, nor my moral courage. I will not forget, nor will I allow my comrades to forget that we are professionals, noncommissioned officers, leaders! The Soldier's Creed Correct Answer: I am an American Soldier. I am a warrior and a member of a team. I serve the people of the United States, and live the Army values. I will always place the mission first. I will never accept defeat. I will never quit. I will never leave a fallen comrade. I am disciplined, physically and mentally tough, trained and proficient in my warrior tasks and drills. I always maintain my arms, my equipment, and myself. I am an expert and I am a professional. I stand ready to deploy, engage, and destroy the enemies of the United States of America in close combat. I am a guardian of freedom and the American way of life. I am an American Soldier. The Army Song Correct Answer: March along, sing our song, with the Army of the free Count the brave, count the true, who have fought to victory We're the Army and proud of our name We're the Army and proudly proclaim First to fight for the right, and to build the Nation's might, And the Army goes rolling along Proud of all we have done, fighting till the battle's won, And the Army goes rolling along Then it's Hi! Hi! Hey! The Army's on its way Count off the cadence loud and strong (Two! Three!) For where e'er we go, you will always know That the Army goes rolling along. What is the purpose of the Army Suicide Prevention Program (ASPP)? Correct Answer: Supports the Army's goal to minimize suicidal behavior by reducing the risk of suicide for Active Army and Reserve Component soldiers, Army civilians, and Army family members (AR 600-63, 4-4a) What are the five overarching strategies for Army suicide-prevention that focuses on maintaining individual readiness? Correct Answer: - Developing positive life coping skills - Encouraging help-seeking behavior - Raising awareness of, and vigilance towards suicide prevention - Synchronizing, integrating, and managing the ASPP - Conducting suicide surveillance, analysis, and reporting (AR 600-63, 4-4h) What are three principle phases or categories of activities used to mitigate the risk and impact of suicidal behaviors? Correct Answer: - Prevention: Focuses on preventing normal life "stressors" from turning into life crises - Intervention: Attempts to prevent a life crisis or mental disorder from leading to thoughts of suicide to help someone manage suicidal thoughts and take action to intervene when a suicide appears imminent - Postvention: Required when an individual has attempted or completed a suicide (AR 600-63, 4- 4i) What are some factors that contribute to suicide? Correct Answer: - Loneliness - Worthlessness - Hopelessness - Helplessness - Guilt (DA PAM 600-24, 3-2) What is the purpose of resiliency-building programs? Correct Answer: To help soldiers and families develop life skills and directly impact the success of suicide prevention efforts by enhancing protective factors and mitigating stressors at the earliest stages (DA PAM 600-24, 3-3) What is resiliency? Correct Answer: The ability to recover and adapt despite adversity, trauma, illness, changes, or misfortunes (DA PAM 600-24, 3-3) What is one of the greatest barriers to preventing suicides? Correct Answer: A culture that shames soldiers into believing it is not safe to seek help (DA PAM 600-24, 3-4) What is a reason individuals may not seek help? Correct Answer: They believe that their problems or behavioral health issues should remain a secret (DA PAM 600-24, 3-4) What can happen when soldiers keep personal problems or behavioral health issues a secret? Correct Answer: Result in the development of depression and anxiety, compounded stressors, degraded ability to think clearly, difficulty with making decisions, thoughts of suicide, suicidal attempts, and completed suicides (DA PAM 600-24, 3-4) What is intervention? Correct Answer: Attempting to prevent a life crisis or mental disorder from leading to suicidal behavior, and includes managing suicidal thoughts that may arise (DA PAM 600-24, 3-7) At its most basic level, what does intervention include? Correct Answer: Simply include listening, showing empathy, and escorting a person to a helping agency (DA PAM 600-24, 3-7) Screening is an important part of prevention and intervention. How is this accomplished? Correct Answer: Screening can be done in person, online, or made available as a self-assessment (DA PAM 600-24, 3-7) What does the acronym ACE stand for? Correct Answer: Ask, care, escort: The ace is the Army approved model for peer intervention and provides an easy acronym to remember that any soldier, leader, family member, or DA civilian can use (DA PAM 600-24, 3-7) Explain the "A" in ACE. Correct Answer: Ask: - Take threats seriously - Confront the problem directly - Talk openly about suicide (DA PAM 600-24, 3-7) Explain the "C" in the acronym ACE. Correct Answer: Care: - Care for the person - Remove any means that could be used for self-injury - Active listening may produce relief - Calmly control the situation; do not use force - Encourage the person to seek help voluntarily - Reassure the person that help is available (DA PAM 600-24, 3-7) Explain the "E" in the acronym ACE. Correct Answer: Escort: - Never leave the person alone - Escort the person to an emergency room, chain of command, chaplain, behavioral health professional, or primary care provider - Never try to force someone to get help (DA PAM 600-24, 3-7) What are some risk factors to identify persons at risk for committing suicide? Correct Answer: - Failed intimate relationship or relationship strain - Previous suicide attempts - Family history of suicide, suicide attempts, depression, or other psychiatric illness - Depression and/or history of PTSD or other mental illness - Significant loss such as death of a loved one, loss due to natural disasters, and so on) - Poor social skills to include difficulty interacting with others (social isolation) - Drug or alcohol abuse - Excessive debt - Work related problems - Serious medical problems or physical illness (DA PAM 600-24, 3-7) What are some warning signs of suicide? Correct Answer: - Noticeable changes in eating/sleeping habits and personal hygiene - Obsession with death - Change in mood - Giving away possessions or disregard for what happens to possessions/suddenly making a will - Feeling sad, depressed, hopeless, anxious, psychic pain or inner tension - Finalizing personal affairs - Problems in relationships and/or marriage - Isolation and withdrawal from social situations - Themes of death in letters and notes - Sudden or impulsive purchase of a firearm or obtaining other means of killing oneself (DA PAM 600-24, 3-7) What is postvention? Correct Answer: A sequence of planned support and interventions carried out with survivors in the aftermath of a completed suicide or suicide attempt (DA PAM 600-24, 4-1) What is the Comprehensive Soldier & Family Fitness (CSF2) program's mission? Correct Answer: To improve the physical and psychological health and resilience of soldiers, their families, and Department of the Army civilians, and to enhance their performance by providing self-assessment and training capabilities aligned to five key functional areas known as the "five dimensions of strength" (Army Directive 2013-07) What are the five pillars of CSF2? Correct Answer: - Global assessment tool - Master resilience trainers - Performance enhancement - Institutional training - Comprehensive resilience modules (Army Directive 2013-07) What are the five dimensions of strength? Correct Answer: - Physical - Emotional - Social - Spiritual - Family What is the global assessment tool (GAT)? Correct Answer: A survey tool through which individuals are able to confidently assess their physical and psychological health based on four of the five dimensions of strength: emotional, social, spiritual, and family fitness (Army Directive 2013-07) What is the role of Master Resilience Trainers (MRTs)? Correct Answer: Serve as Commanders' advisors for resilience training and are the only personnel authorized to conduct formal resilience training to members of the Army family (Army Directive 2013-07) What are Comprehensive Resilience Modules (CRMs)? Correct Answer: Web-based selfdevelopment training intended to build resilience across the force (and the wider military community) and teach skills that support social, emotional, family, spiritual, and physical resilience (Army Directive 2013-07) According to AR 215-1, what does the BOSS program provide to single soldiers? Correct Answer: Provides an opportunity for single soldiers to participate in and contribute to their respective communities. It is an avenue for military and civilian leaders to gauge and enhance the morale of single soldiers, which leads to retention and combat readiness (AR 215-1, 8-11a) What are the objectives of the BOSS program? Correct Answer: - Improve the quality of life through the identification, improvement, and resolution of concerns and issues - Provide an opportunity to participate in and contribute to their communities (military and local civilian) - Enhance morale, leading to retention and combat readiness - Maintain standards of conduct, good order, and discipline - Identify recreation and leisure activities of interest to the single soldier (AR 215-1, 8-11c) What are the core components of the BOSS program? Correct Answer: - Quality of life: Includes aspects of life that soldiers can directly or indirectly influence to enhance their morale, living environment, or personal growth and development - Recreation and leisure: Encompasses activities and events that refresh the body or mind and are structured to fit the lifestyle of the single soldier - Community service: Includes a service, activity, or project that makes a difference in the lives of others in the community, which may include both military and civilian communities (AR 215- 1, 8-11d) What is the role of a BOSS committee? Correct Answer: To furnish soldier input to the garrison commander, who uses committee recommendations as the basis for improving single soldier MWR programs and enhancing soldier quality of life (AR 215-1, 8-11e) Who approves and supports the elected executive committee members of the BOSS committee? Correct Answer: Garrison command sergeant major (AR 215-1, 8-11e) What does EO stand for? What does SHARP stand for? Correct Answer: EO is Equal Opportunity, SHARP is Sexual Harassment/Assault Response and Prevention What is the purpose of the EO program? Correct Answer: EO Program formulates, directs, and sustains a comprehensive effort to maximize human potential and to ensure fair treatment for all persons based solely on merit, fitness, and capability in support of readiness (AR 600-20, 6-1) What is U.S. Army policy on EO? Correct Answer: - U.S. Army will provide EO and fair treatment for military personnel and family members without regard to race, color, gender, national origin, and provide an environment free of unlawful discrimination and offensive behavior - Soldiers will not be accessed, classified, trained, assigned, promoted, or otherwise managed on the basis of race, color, religion, gender, or national origin (AR 600-20, 6-2) What is AR 600-20 definition of discrimination? Correct Answer: Any action that unlawfully or unjustly results in unequal treatment of persons or groups based on race, color, gender, national origin, or religion What is AR 600-20 definition of equal opportunity? Correct Answer: The right of all persons to participate in, and benefit from, programs and activities for which they are qualified What are individual rights for processing equal opportunity complaints? Correct Answer: - Present a complaint to the command without fear of intimidation, reprisal, or harassment - Communicate with the commander concerning their complaints - Receive assistance when submitting a complaint - Receive training on the Army's EO complaint and appeals process What is the purpose of special/ethnic observances? Correct Answer: Conducted to enhance cross-cultural awareness among all soldiers, civilian employees, and their families What is the Army policy on sexual harassment? Correct Answer: Unacceptable conduct and will not be tolerated; Army leadership at all levels will be committed to creating and maintaining an environment conducive to maximum productivity and respect for human dignity What is AR 600-20 definition of sexual harassment? Correct Answer: Form of gender discrimination that involves unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature between the same or opposite genders What are the categories of sexual harassment? Correct Answer: Verbal, nonverbal, and physical contact What are the types of sexual harassment? Correct Answer: Quid pro quo and hostile environment What are some techniques of dealing with sexual harassment? Correct Answer: Direct approach, indirect approach, third party, chain of command, and filing a formal complaint What is the Army policy on sexual assault? Correct Answer: A criminal offense that has no place in the Army; it degrades mission readiness by devastating the Army's ability to work effectively as a team. Every soldier who is aware of a sexual assault should immediately (24 hours) report incidents What are the goals of the SHARP program? Correct Answer: - Create a climate that minimizes sexual assault incidents, which impact Army personnel, Army civilians, and family members, and if an incident should occur, ensure that victims and subjects are treated according to Army policy - Create a climate the encourages victims to report incidents of sexual assault without fear - Establish sexual assault prevention training and awareness programs to educate soldiers What is the difference between restricted reporting and unrestricted reporting? Correct Answer: - Restricted: Allows soldier who is a sexual assault victim, on a confidential basis, to disclose the details of his/her assault to specifically identified individuals and receive medical treatment and counseling, without triggering the official investigative process - Unrestricted: Allows soldier who is sexual assaulted and desires medical treatment, counseling, and an official investigation of his/her allegation What is the role of a unit victim advocate (UVA)? Correct Answer: UVA is one of two soldiers or civilians who is appointed on orders by each battalion level commander and trained to perform collateral duties in support of victims of sexual assault, particularly in deployed environments What is the difference between sexual harassment and sexual assault? Correct Answer: Sexual harassment involves verbal, nonverbal, and physical behaviors. Sexual assault involves sexual contact characterized by the use of force What is the SHARP program? Correct Answer: A comprehensive integration and transformation of the Army's Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) Program and Prevention of Sexual Harassment (POSH) efforts; the SHARP program reinforces the Army's commitment to eliminate incidents of sexual harassment and sexual assault through awareness and prevention, training, victim advocacy, reporting, and accountability How does sexual harassment and sexual assault affect soldiers and civilians in their units and communities? Correct Answer: Undermines the strength of our Army and fundamentally goes against the Warrior Ethos, the Army Civilian Corps Creed, and Army Values What are the effects of sexual harassment/assault on an individual? Correct Answer: - Isolation - Depression - Degrading of individual - Difficulty with trust - Excessive absenteeism - Loss of career - PTSD What are the effects of sexual harassment/assault on a unit? Correct Answer: - Loss of unit cohesion - Inability to accomplish goals and missions - Decrease unit readiness - Low morale - Excessive absenteeism - Loss of personnel What is I. A.M. STRONG? Correct Answer: Intervene, Act, and Motivate (I. A.M.) STRONG is the Army's campaign to combat sexual assaults by engaging all soldiers in preventing sexual assaults before they occur What are some legal ramifications (military) for committing sexual HARASSMENT? Correct Answer: Sexual harassment is punishable under UCMJ: - Article 15 - Court martial - If accused of physical contact, can be punished as sexual assault under UCMJ, and other Federal and local civilian laws Administrative Actions: - Counseling - Additional training - Denial of privileges - Rehabilitative transfer - Letter of reprimand (commander) - Bar to reenlistment - Separation/discharge To who can a victim report confidentially in the event of a sexual assault? Correct Answer: - Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) or SHARP specialist (brigade and higher) - Victim advocate (VA) or SHARP specialist (battalion or below) - Healthcare personnel What are some legal ramifications (military) for committing sexual ASSAULT? Correct Answer: - Punishable under UCMJ and other federal and local civilian laws - Depending on the offense and circumstances of the offense, maximum punishments include: - Death (if assault results in homicide) - Confinement for life - Confinement for a period of years - Reduction in rank to E-1 - Total forfeitures of all pay and allowances - Dishonorable discharge, bad conduct discharge, or dismissal What are some behaviors that soldiers should be alert for and be prepared to intervene? Correct Answer: - Sexual comments and gestures - Disrespectful behavior - Treating people like things or objects - Encouraging someone to drink too much - Inappropriate touching - Targeting someone who is vulnerable - Attempting to isolate someone - Using alcohol or drugs to increase vulnerability Soldiers and civilians must be leaders and intervene, act, and motivate. What are the steps in "intervene"? Correct Answer: - Notice a pattern of behaviors - Interpret it as a problem - Feel responsible for solving the problem - Choose how to intervene - Build the culture to eliminate it Why is it important for us to stop sexual harassment and sexual assault? Correct Answer: We all have a responsibility to take action to change our culture to eliminate the enemy that lies within our ranks What are some available resources to a victim who filed an unrestricted report? Correct Answer: - SARC/VA/SHARP specialist - Healthcare personnel - Chain of command - Military police - Criminal Investigation Command (CID) - Local and state police - 911 What regulation covers the Army Substance Abuse Program (ASAP)? Correct Answer: AR 600- 85 What are the two overarching tenets of the ASAP? Correct Answer: - Prevention (education, deterrence, ID/detection, referral, risk reduction) - Treatment (screening, rehabilitation) What are the responsibilities of a company/detachment commander in support of the ASAP? Correct Answer: - Implement prevention and education initiatives for ASAP - Appoint an officer or NCO as UPL (unit prevention leader) and alternate UPL - Maintain liaison with ASAP garrison and counseling staffs - Maintain ASAP elements while deployed, to the maximum extent possible - Foster a positive command climate that discourages alcohol and drug abuse and is supportive of those in need of assistance from the ASAP - Refer any soldier to the ASAP for evaluation within 5 duty days of notification that the soldier tested positive on a urinalysis What are the objectives of the Army's drug testing program? Correct Answer: - Deter soldiers from abusing drugs - Facilitate early detection of drug abuse - Enable commanders to assess the security, military fitness, good order, and discipline of their units - Monitor rehab of those enrolled in alcohol and/or other drug abuse rehab - Collect data on prevalence of drug abuse within the Army What are the variety of methods of identification? Correct Answer: - Volunteer/self ID - Commander/supervisor ID - Drug testing ID - Alcohol testing ID - Medical ID - Investigation/apprehension (ID through military or civilian law enforcement investigation) What regulation covers the Army Emergency Relief program? Correct Answer: AR 930-4 What is the Army Emergency Relief program? Correct Answer: A private nonprofit organization utilized to collect and hold funds to relieve distress of members of the Army and their dependents Who are eligible to receive financial assistance from AER? Correct Answer: - Soldiers on extended active duty (and dependents) - Reserve component soldiers on continuous AD orders for more than 30 consecutive days and their dependents - Soldiers retired from AD for longevity, physical disability, or retired at age 60 under Section 1331, Title 10 - Surviving spouses and orphans of eligible soldiers who died while on AD What are the forms of emergency financial assistance that AER provides? Correct Answer: - Loan: emergency financial assistance is usually a loan, all AER loans are interest free - Grant: grant is made when repayment may cause undue hardship in the foreseeable future - Loan and grant: combination made when a soldier's situation prevents them from repaying the full amount of a loan, but they can still make partial payments without hardship What are the sources of Army Emergency Relief funds? Correct Answer: - Annual voluntary contributions from soldiers - Unsolicited contributions (bequests, memorials, legacies) - Repayments of loans - Income from reserve funds What is the purpose of the AER Annual Fund Campaign? Correct Answer: - Provide the opportunity for soldiers to make donations to AER to help their fellow soldiers - Increase awareness of all soldiers and their dependents, as well as spouses and orphans of deceased soldiers, about types of financial assistance provided by AER - Comply with IRS policies to maintain not for profit, tax exempt status - Publicize procedures to obtain AER assistance What are the three major categories of developmental counseling? Correct Answer: - Event counseling - Performance counseling - Professional growth counseling What are some examples of event-oriented counseling? Correct Answer: - Instances of superior or substandard performance - Reception and integration counseling - Crisis counseling - Referral counseling - Promotion counseling - Separation counseling What are two important purposes of reception and integration counseling? Correct Answer: - Identifies and helps alleviate any problems or concerns new members may have, including issues resulting from new duty assignment - Familiarizes new team members with the organization standards and how they fit into the team; clarifies roles and assignments What does Army regulations require for soldiers who attain full promotion eligibility? Correct Answer: Soldiers within this category receive initial (event oriented) counseling when they attain full promotion eligibility and then periodic (performance/personal growth) counseling thereafter What occurs during performance counseling? Correct Answer: Leaders conduct a review of a subordinate's duty performance over a certain period; simultaneously, leader and subordinate jointly establish performance objectives and standards for the next period What is professional growth counseling? Correct Answer: Counseling that includes planning for the accomplishment of individual and professional goals. During the counseling, leader and subordinate conduct a review to identify to identify and discuss the subordinate's strengths and weaknesses and to create an individual development plan that builds upon those strengths and compensates for weaknesses While it is not easy to address every possible counseling situation, leader self-awareness and an adaptable counseling style focusing on key characteristics will enhance personal effectiveness as a counselor. What are these key characteristics? Correct Answer: - Purpose: clearly define the purpose of the counseling - Flexibility: fit the counseling style to the character of each subordinate and to the relationship desired Respect: view subordinates as unique, complex individuals, each with a distinct set of values, beliefs, and attitudes - Communication: establish open, two-way communication with subordinates using spoken language, nonverbal actions, gestures, and body language - Support: encourage subordinates through actions while guiding them through their problems Active listening helps communicate reception of the subordinate's message verbally and nonverbally; how does the leader capture this message fully? Correct Answer: Leaders listen to what is said and observe the subordinate's manners What are some key elements of active listening? Correct Answer: - Eye contact: maintaining eye contact without staring helps show sincere interest; occasional breaks are normal and acceptable, while excessive breaks, paper shuffling, and clock-watching may be perceived as a lack of interest or concern - Body posture: being relaxed and comfortable will help put the subordinate at ease; however, a too-relaxed position or slouching may be interpreted as a lack of interest - Head nods: occasionally head nodding indicates paying attention and encourages the subordinate to continue - Facial expressions: keep facial expressions natural and relaxed to signal a sincere interest - Verbal expressions: refrain from talking too much and avoid interrupting; let the sub. do the talking, while keeping the discussion on the counseling subject A leader responds verbally and nonverbally to show understanding of the sub. What do verbal responses consist of? Correct Answer: - Summarizing - Interpreting - Clarifying the sub.'s message What do nonverbal responses include? Correct Answer: - Eye contact - Occasional gestures such as a head nod What are some common counseling errors that interfere with effective counseling? Correct Answer: - Dominating the counseling by talking too much - Giving unnecessary or inappropriate advice - Not truly listening - Projecting personal likes, dislikes, biases, and prejudices What should a leader do when he/she cannot help a soldier in a situation? Correct Answer: Recognize personal limitations and seek outside assistance, when required; when necessary, refer sub. to the agency more qualified to help What are the three approaches to counseling? Correct Answer: - Directive - Nondirective - Combined What are some counseling techniques leaders may explore during nondirective or combined approaches? Correct Answer: - Suggesting alternatives: discuss alternative actions that the sub. may take; leader and sub. together decide which course of action is most appropriate - Recommending: recommend one course of action, but leave the decision to accept it to the sub. - Persuading: persuade the sub. that a given course of action is best, but the final decision to the sub.; successful persuasion depends on the leader's credibility, the sub.'s willingness to listen, and mutual trust - Advising: advise the sub. that a given course of action is best; this is the strongest form of influence not involving a command What are some counseling techniques leaders may explore during the direct approach? Correct Answer: - Corrective training: teach and assist the sub. in attaining and maintaining the required standard; corrective training is complete when the standard is consistently attained - Commanding: order the sub. to take a given course of action in clear, precise words; the sub. understands the order and will face consequences for failing to carry it out What is the four-stage counseling process an effective Army leader uses? Correct Answer: - Identify the need for counseling - Prepare for counseling - Conduct counseling - Follow-up What are the seven preparation areas to ensure a successful counseling session? Correct Answer: - Select a suitable place - Schedule the time - Notify the sub. well in advance - Organize info - Outline the counseling session components - Plan the counseling strategy - Establish the right atmosphere What are the four basic components of a counseling session? Correct Answer: - Opening the session - Discussing the issues - Developing a plan of action - Recording and closing the session What DA Form was designed to help Army leaders conduct and record counseling sessions? Correct Answer: The developmental counseling form DA Form 4856 What is counseling? Correct Answer: A standardized tool used to provide feedback to a sub.; counseling focuses on the sub. by producing a plan outlining actions the sub. can take to achieve individual and organizational goals What must the flagging authority, unit commander, or first line supervisor state during counseling of a soldier following the initiation of any flag? Correct Answer: - Reason for the flag - Requirement for flag removal - Action prohibited by the flag One of the most effective administrative corrective measures is extra training or instruction. What must a leader ensure prior to implementing a plan of action involving an administrative corrective measure? Correct Answer: - The training, instruction, or correction given to a soldier to correct deficiencies must be directly related to the deficiency - Must be orientated to improving the soldier's performance in his or her problem area - Corrective training should continue only until the training deficiency is overcome - Training and instruction are not used in an oppressive manner to evade the procedural safeguards applying to imposing nonjudicial punishment How often will a supervisor rate their rated NCOs? Correct Answer: Counseling will be conducted within 30 days after the beginning of the rating period and quarterly thereafter for NCOs What must a unit commander do after upon notification of an enlisted woman that is pregnant? Correct Answer: - The unit commander must counsel the soldier - The unit commander will explain the purpose of the counseling is to provide info concerning her options, entitlements, and responsibilities - Explain that the soldier may, upon request, be separated or remain on active duty What Army regulation prescribes the policy for completing evaluation reports and associated support forms that are the basis for the Army's Evaluation Reporting System (ERS)? Correct Answer: AR 623-3, Evaluation Reporting System What does the Evaluation Reporting System identify? Correct Answer: Identifies officers and NCOs who are best qualified for promotion and assignments to positions of higher responsibility; also identifies soldiers who should be kept on active duty, those who should be retained in grade, and those who should be eliminated What are the functions of the ERS? Correct Answer: - Primary function is to provide information to HQDA for use in making personnel management decisions - Secondary function is to encourage leader professional development and enhance mission accomplishment, through sound senior and/or sub. relationships that stress the importance of setting standards and giving direction to sub. officer and NCO leaders What are the members of an NCOER rating chain? Correct Answer: - Rated NCO - Rater - Senior Rater - Reviewer What are the requirements to be a rater? Correct Answer: Rater will be the supervisor for a minimum period of 90 calendar days What are the requirements to be a senior rater? Correct Answer: Senior rater will be the immediate supervisor of the rater and designated as the rated NCO's senior rater for a minimum period of 60 calendar days What are the requirements to be a reviewer? Correct Answer: Reviewer will be an officer, CSM, or SGM in the direct line of supervision and senior in pay grade or date of rank to the senior rater; no minimum time period is required for reviewer qualification What does the rated NCO's signature on an NCOER acknowledge? Correct Answer: Signature verifies that administrative data including SSN, counseling dates, APFT, and height and weight entries on the form are correct and confirms that the rated soldier has seen the completed report What DA form is used to document the required initial and quarterly NCO counseling, professional development throughout the rating period, and to prepare the final evaluation? Correct Answer: DA Form 2166-8-1 What special interest items must be included on all NCOER support forms? Correct Answer: Comments related to: - Safety - Individual and unit deployment readiness - Support of behavioral health goals will be included on all NCOER support forms What is the rater's responsibility at the beginning of the rating period? Correct Answer: Rater will inform the rated NCO of the complete rating chain and will ensure that the correct rating chain is recorded on DA Form 2166-8-1; rater will conduct a face-to-face counseling session with the rated NCO within the first 30 days of the rating period. Discussion will focus on duties, responsibilities, and performance goals of rated NCO Is the use of the DA Form 2166-8-1 mandatory for counseling all NCOs in the ranks of CPL through CSM? Correct Answer: Yes, DA Form 2166-8-1 is mandatory for counseling all NCOs What effect does voluntary enrollment in Army Substance Abuse Program (ASAP) have on a rated soldier and why? Correct Answer: Voluntarily enrolling into the ASAP for an alcohol or drug abuse problem will not be penalized by mention of ASAP participation in an evaluation report; this would discourage voluntary entry in ASAP When should the rating chain note the status of a rated soldier's behavioral health on an NCOER? Correct Answer: Rating chain should note the status of a rated soldier's behavioral health improvement and maintenance of an improved status in the ER covering the period which the soldier's status improved What are some of the common types of NCOERs? Correct Answer: - Change of rater report - Annual report - Relief for cause report - Complete the record report - Senior rater option report - 60-day option report What references will be made on an NCOER about an incomplete investigation on a rated NCO? Correct Answer: No reference will be made to an incomplete investigation, formal or informal, concerning a soldier What type of NCOER is used following the removal of an NCO from a specific duty or assignment based on a decision by a member of the NCO's chain of command or supervisory chain? Correct Answer: Relief for cause NCOER What DA pamphlet prescribes the procedures for completing ERs that support the ERS? Correct Answer: DA PAM 623-3 Soldiers are evaluated on performance and potential. What are the three types of evaluations under the ERS? Correct Answer: - Duty evaluations - School evaluations - DA evaluations The info provided on the OER, NCOER, or AER combined with the Army's needs and individual leader qualifications is used as a basis for personnel actions. What are some of those actions? Correct Answer: - Promotion - Elimination - Retention in grade - Retention on active duty - Reduction in force - Command selection - School selection - Assignment - Specialty designation - Regular Army and joint integration What DA form is used by rating chain members to provide DA with performance and potential assessments of each rated NCO? Correct Answer: DA Form 2166-8 What are the parts of an NCOER? Correct Answer: - Part 1: Administrative data - Part 2: Authentication - Part 3: Duty description - Part 4: Army values/noncommissioned responsibilities - Part 5: Overall performance and potential Who is the last individual to sign the NCOER? Correct Answer: The rated NCO; the rated soldier may not sign or date the report before the rater, senior rater, or reviewer Explain the ratings "excellence", "success", and "needs improvement" found on part 4 (Army values/noncommissioned responsibilities) on the NCOER. Correct Answer: - Excellence: exceeds standards; demonstrated by specific examples and measurable results; special and unusual; achieved by only a few; clearly better than most others - Success: meets all standards; majority of ratings are in this category; fully competitive for schooling and promotion; goal of counseling is to bring all NCOs to this level - Needs improvement: missed meeting some standards What must be explained in part 4c (physical fitness and military bearing) of the NCOER when the APFT entry is "fail"? Correct Answer: Entries will address reasons for failure and note any progress toward meeting physical fitness standards Which member of the rating chain is responsible for parts 4c-e (overall performance and potential) on the DA Form 2166-8? Correct Answer: The senior rater What type of report is prepared for soldiers who take part in resident and nonresident training at service schools and NCO academies? Correct Answer: DA Form 1059, Service School Academic ER What Army regulation covers military justice? Correct Answer: AR 27-10 What is the purpose of nonjudicial punishment? Correct Answer: - Correct, educate, and reform offenders who the imposing commander determines cannot benefit from less stringent measures - Preserve a soldier's record of service from unnecessary stigma by record of court-martial conviction - Improve military efficiency by disposing of minor offenses in a manner requiring less time and personnel than trial by court-martial What is one of the most effective nonpunitive measures available to a commander and how is it used? Correct Answer: Extra training or instruction; used when a soldier's duty performance has been substandard or deficient; training or instruction must relate directly to the deficiency observed and must be oriented to correct that particular deficiency What are the maximum punishments that can be imposed on enlisted members by a company grade officer? Correct Answer: - Admonition/reprimand - Extra duties (14 days) - Restriction (14 days) - Correctional custody E1-E3 (7 days) - Reduction E-1 through E-4 (down by one grade) Forfeiture (7 days pay) What are the maximum punishments that can be imposed on enlisted members by a field grade officer? Correct Answer: - Admonition/reprimand - Extra duties (45 days) - Restriction (60 days) - Correctional custody E1-E3 (30 days) - Reduction E-1 through E-4 (one or more grade) - Reduction E-5 through E-6 (one grade in peacetime) - Forfeiture (1/2 month pay for two months) Who can deliver the DA Form 2627 and inform the soldier of the soldier's rights (first reading of article 15)? Correct Answer: Imposing commander may authorize an officer or NCO (SFC or above) provided such person is senior to the soldier being notified; the NCO performing the notification should usually be the unit 1SG or senior NCO of the command concerned What is the difference between an open and closed hearing? Correct Answer: - Open hearing is a hearing open to the public but does not require the commander to hold the proceeding in a location different from that in which the commander conducts normal business (commander's office) - Closed hearing is one in which the commander decides that members of the public will not attend When extra duty is imposed, what must a supervisor ensure NOT occur? Correct Answer: - ED constitutes cruel or unusual punishment or a punishment not sanctioned by the customs of the service; using the offender as a personal servant - ED turns out to be a duty normally intended as an honor, such as assignment to a guard of honor - ED is required to be performed in a ridiculous or unnecessarily degrading manner; e.g. cleaning a barracks floor with a toothbrush - ED constitutes a safety or health hazard to the offender - ED would demean the soldier's position as a NCO or SPC How can a unit announce the punishment of a soldier? Correct Answer: - At unit formation after punishment is imposed or, if appealed, after the decision on the appeal - Results of the UCMJ and article 15 punishment on the unit bulletin board after deleting the SSN and other relevant privacy information What is the purpose of announcing the results of punishments? Correct Answer: To prevent perceptions of unfairness of punishment and to deter similar misconduct by other soldiers What must a unit consider prior to announcing the punishment of soldiers in the grade of SGT or above? Correct Answer: - Nature of the offense - Individual's military record and duty position - The deterrent effect - Impact on unit morale or mission - Impact on the victim - Impact on the leadership effectiveness of the individual concerned What is the mission of the Judge Advocate General's Corps (JAGC)? Correct Answer: Develop, employ, and retain one team of proactive professionals, forged by the Warrior Ethos, who deliver principled counsel and mission focused legal services to the Army and the nation What is the role of the legal administrator? Correct Answer: Serves as technical experts and provide experience and leadership to their organizations that contribute significantly to mission accomplishment Soldier discipline is one component of the mission command warfighting function. During operations, what should Judge Advocates check to determine if discipline is regulated, enhanced, and enforced? Correct Answer: - Are there general orders or other command policies in force in the operational area that will affect any aspect of the operation plan? - Are there any status-of-forces or jurisdictional matters that need to be resolved in advance of the operation? - Are there provisions in place for the delivery of military justice in the operational area once operations reach ready state? What is the role of the brigade legal section? Correct Answer: Whether in garrison or deployed, provides legal services across the core legal disciplines; the section's priorities are based on the brigade commander's guidance and direction, the SJA's legal priorities across the area of ops., and the brigade judge advocate's professional judgement What is the purpose of military justice? Correct Answer: To promote justice, to assist in maintaining good order and discipline in the armed forces, to promote efficiency and effectiveness in the military establishment, and thereby to strengthen the national security of the United States What are the two types of proceedings under Article 15, UCMJ? Correct Answer: - Summarized proceedings - Formal proceedings What is the mission of the Army Legal Assistance Program? Correct Answer: To assist those eligible for legal assistance with their personal legal affairs quickly and professionally What are the three types of courts-martial? Correct Answer: - Summary court-martial: court that handles minor offenses; composed of one officer who may or may not be a lawyer - Special court-martial: court that tries enlisted soldiers and consists of a military judge, at least three court members, a trial counsel, and a defense counsel - General court-martial: court that tries the most serious offenses; it consists of a military judge, at least five members, a trial counsel, and a defense counsel What must the commander notify the soldier of during the "first reading"? Correct Answer: - Commander's intention to dispose of the matter under article 15 - Offense of which the soldier is suspected - Maximum punishment that the commander could impose under article 15 - Soldier's right under article 15 What must occur prior to conducting official questioning of a suspect or accused? Correct Answer: You must read a right warning What is an AR 15-6 investigation? Correct Answer: Used to determine facts and report them to the appropriate authority When must a flag be initiated? Correct Answer: Flag will be initiated immediately when a soldier's status changes from favorable to unfavorable When is a flag based on an article 15 removed? Correct Answer: Flag based on article 15 will not be removed until the soldier's punishment is completed including any term of suspension What is the purpose of a bar to reenlistment? Correct Answer: Serves a useful purpose as a "probationary period", enabling a soldier to show signs of rehab following acts of misconduct or substandard performance On 1 March 2012, Army Directive 2012-03 became effective and required commanders to impose a bar to reenlistment on certain grounds. What are those grounds? Correct Answer: - Loss of primary MOS qualification due to fault of the soldier - Soldier denied Command List Integration for promotion by unit commander - Incident involving the use of illegal drugs or alcohol within the current enlistment/reenlistment period resulting in an officially filed reprimand, a finding of guilty under Article 15, a civilian criminal conviction, or a conviction by court martial - Two or more separate proceedings under article 15 resulting in a finding of guilty by a field grade officer during the soldier's current enlistment - Soldier AWOL more than 96 hours during current enlistment What Army regulation covers military awards? Correct Answer: AR 600-8-22 What is the goal of the total Army awards program? Correct Answer: To foster mission accomplishment by recognizing excellence of both military and civilian members of the force and motivating them to high levels of performance and service When should recipients of awards receive at presentation award emblems and the elements (medal, cert, and orders)? Correct Answer: Before leaving an assignment or transition from active duty What are the categories of individual awards? Correct Answer: - Decorations - Good Conduct Medals - Campaign and service medals - Service ribbons - Badges and tabs - Certs and letters Individuals on whom favorable personnel actions have been suspended neither are recommended for nor receive awards during the period of the suspension. What is the only exception? Correct Answer: Soldiers who are flagged for APFT failure Who usually presents the Medal of Honor to living awardees and at what location? Correct Answer: By the President of the United States at the White House How does the Purple Heart differs from all other individual decorations? Correct Answer: The individual is not "recommended" for the decoration; rather he or she is entitled to it upon meeting specific criteria When considering award of the Military Outstanding Volunteer Service Medal (MOVSM), what issues should be taken into consideration? Correct Answer: - Exceptional community support was over time and not a single act or achievement - Service member must be performing services on a voluntary basis, not detailed or tasked - Services performed may not be part of any military mission (e.g. a unit project), and may not result in any personal gain for the service member Who may recommend an individual for an award? Correct Answer: Any individual having personal knowledge of an act, achievement, or service believed to warrant the award of a decoration is responsible to submit a formal recommendation into military command channels for consideration Who is the approval authority for the MSM, ARCOM, and AAM? Correct Answer: - MSM: Brigadier General - ARCOM: Colonel - AAM: Lieutenant Colonel What DA Form will be used to initiate, process, and approve award recommendations of all U.S. Army individual decorations, to include valor and heroism decorations? Correct Answer: DA Form 638, Recommendation for Award What is the period of continuous enlisted active Federal military service that qualifies a soldier for award of the Army Good Conduct Medal (AGCM) or of an AGCM clasp? Correct Answer: Three years What is the purpose of service (campaign) medals and service ribbons? Correct Answer: To denote honorable performance of military duty within specified limited dates in specified geographical areas What does each numeral devices of the NCO Professional Development Ribbon (NPDR) denote? Correct Answer: - Ribbon with no numeral device: successful completion of BLC - Numeral device "2": successful completion of ALC - Numeral device "3": successful completion of SLC - Numeral device "4": successful completion of the US Army Sergeants Major Academy What is the maximum number of Oak Leaf Clusters you can wear on a ribbon and must occur if you exceed the maximum number? Correct Answer: No more than four Oak Leaf Clusters on each ribbon; if the receipt of future awards reduces the number of Oak Leaf Clusters sufficiently (that is, a silver oak leaf cluster for five awards), remove the second ribbon and place the appropriate number of devices on a single ribbon What are the types of unit awards that are authorized as recognition of certain types of service, usually during war, as a means of promoting esprit de corps? Correct Answer: - Unit decorations - Campaign participation credit and campaign streamer - War service credit - Infantry and medical streamers What types of badges are awarded to denote proficiency in performance of duties under hazardous conditions and circumstances of extraordinary hardship as well as special qualifications and successful completion of prescribed courses of training? Correct Answer: Combat and special skill badges What are the four tabs authorized to indicate skill? Correct Answer: - Ranger - Special Forces - Sapper Tab - President's Hundred What conditions must be met in order for a soldier to be awarded the Combat Medical Badge? Correct Answer: - Medical personnel must be assigned or attached to or under operational control of any ground combat arms (not to include members assigned or attached to aviation units) of brigade or smaller size - Medical personnel must satisfactorily perform medical duties while the unit is engaged in active ground combat, provided they are personally present and under fire Who has the authority to test and award the Expert Field Medical Badge (EFMB)? Correct Answer: Commanders in the grade of Lieutenant Colonel or above; they must have the resources and facilities to conduct the test as prescribed by the US Army Medical Department Center and School What are the eligibility requirements for soldiers to be awarded a driver and mechanic badge with a driver-W component bar? Correct Answer: - Qualify for and possess a current license issued as prescribed by AR 600-55 - Be assigned duties and responsibilities as a driver or assistant driver of gov't vehicles for a minimum of 12 consecutive months, or during at least 8000 miles with no gov't motor vehicle accident or traffic violation recorded on their DA Form 348-1-R (Equipment Operator's Qualification Record) - Perform satisfactorily for a minimum period of 1 year as an active qualified driver instructor or motor vehicle driver examiner What are the requirements to be awarded the Physical Fitness Badge? Correct Answer: - Have a minimum score of 270 with a minimum of 90 points in each event on the APFT - Meet the body fat standards How can commanders recognize an individual's period of faithful service, acts, or achievements that do not meet the standards required for decorations? Correct Answer: By issuing the individual a certificate of achievement (COA) What is meant by "above and beyond the call of duty"? Correct Answer: Exercise of a voluntary course of action the omission of which would not justly subject the individual to censure (criticism) for failure in the performance of duty What is meant by "distinguished himself or herself by"? Correct Answer: A person to have distinguished himself or herself must, by praiseworthy accomplishment, be set apart from other persons in the same or similar circumstances What is meant by "meritorious achievement"? Correct Answer: An act which is well above the expected performance of duty; the act should be an exceptional accomplishment with a definite beginning and and ending date What are the two categories of maintenance? Correct Answer: - Field: consists of maintenance functions formerly known as operator/crew (equipment operators and vehicle crews), unit, and direct support - Sustainment: consists of maintenance functions formerly known as general support (GS) and depot operations of the Army maintenance system and Army wide program for commodityunique maintenance What is the purpose of Army maintenance? Correct Answer: To generate and regenerate combat power and preserve the capital investment of combat systems and equipment to enable training and mission accomplishment To have a successful unit maintenance program that supports mission accomplishment, leaders must start with their operators and crews. What must operators and crews know? Correct Answer: How to detect and report malfunctions as well as operate equipment properly and safely When will operators and crews use the equipment TM? Correct Answer: While conducting before, during, and after operation PMCS What is preventive maintenance checks and service (PMCS)? Correct Answer: The care, servicing, inspection, detection, and correction of minor faults before these faults cause serious damage, failure, or injury; the procedures and the category of maintenance to perform PMCS are found in the 10 and 20 series equipment TMs and LOs and ETMs (electronic technical manuals) What is a maintenance standard? Correct Answer: A measure that specifies the minimum condition to which material must be restored by repair, overhaul, or some other maintenance function to ensure its satisfactory performance for a specified period of service What is meant by the term "fully mission capable"? Correct Answer: - Systems and equipment that are safe and have all mission-essential subsystems installed and operating as designated by applicable Army regulation - An FMC vehicle or system has no faults that are listed in the "not FMC if" columns of the TM/ETM 10 and 20 series PMCS tables that apply to the vehicle/system or its subsystem required by AR 700-138 - Ready/available and FMC refer to the same status; equipment is on hand and able to perform its combat missions What are "before" operation checks? Correct Answer: Checks performed by the operator/crew per TM/ETM 10 series PMCS tables to identify faults that prevent performance of the mission and must be corrected PRIOR to start of the mission What are "during" operation checks? Correct Answer: Checks performed by the operator/crew per the TM/ETM 10 series PMCS tables that monitor operation of equipment and identify faults in equipment performance DURING the mission What are "after" operations checks? Correct Answer: PMCS checks and services performed per the TM/ETM 10 series PMCS tables at the CONCLUSION of the mission to identify and correct faults that preclude the next mission and to maintain the equipment to TM 10 and 20 series PMCS maintenance standard The range and complexity of medical equipment used to provide healthcare require that operators and their supervisors be responsible for their portion of the activity maintenance program. What are some of the requirements for medical equipment operators and /or supervisors? Correct Answer: - Perform before, during, and after operation maintenance tasks according to TMs and manufacturer's instructions utilizing DA Form 2404; report malfunctioning equipment to immediate supervisor and the supporting medical maintenance activity - Initiate a maintenance request for any maintenance services beyond those authorized as part of the operator's daily operations - Maintain operator's daily operations - Maintain accountability of medical equipment and sets What are the classes of supply? Correct Answer: - Class 1: subsistence, including free health and welfare items - Class 2: clothing, individual equipment, tentage, tool sets and tool kits, hand-tools, administrative and housekeeping supplies and equipment (including maps) - Class 3: POL (petroleum, oil, and lubricants), solid fuels, including bulk and and packaged fuel, petroleum specialty products; solid fuels, coal, and related products - Class 4: construction materials; to include installed equipment, and all fortification/barrier materials - Class 5: ammunition of all types (including chemical, radiological, and special weapons), bombs, explosives, mines, fuses, detonators, pyrotechnics, missiles, rockets, propellants, and other associated items - Class 6: personal demand items (nonmilitary sales items) - Class 7: major items; a final combination of end products which is ready for its intended use such as launchers, tanks, mobile machine shops, vehicles - Class 8: medical material, including medical peculiar repair parts - Class 9: repair parts and components including kits, assemblies and subassemblies, reparable and non-repairable, required for maintenance support of all equipment - Class 10: material to support nonmilitary programs, such as agricultural and economic development, not included in classes 1-9 What must occur upon notification that a hand receipt holder will be absent from his/her primary duties due to extended temporary duty, an emergency, hospitalization, and a 100 percent joint inventory cannot be conducted? Correct Answer: - Commander/activity chief will appoint an interim HRH and an inventory team - Newly appointed PHRH and inventory team will conduct an inventory of all property on hand receipt - This inventory is completed as soon as possible but must be accomplished within 30 days What are the guidelines for inventorying weapons and ammunition? Correct Answer: - Unit commander or designated representative (NCO, warrant officer, officer, or DOD civilian) will inventory weapons by serial number and ammunition by lot and serial number - Unit armorers will not conduct this inventory nor will the same person do this inventory consecutively What is the purpose of the command supply discipline program (CSDP)? Correct Answer: - Establish supply discipline as regulatory guidance - Standardize supply discipline requirements - Provide responsible personnel with a single listing of supply policy requirements - Make the US Army more efficient with respect to time spent monitoring sub.'s actions - Eliminate repeat findings of noncompliance with policy - Serve as a checklist for internal management controls What is supply economy? Correct Answer: Conservation of material by every individual dealing with Army supplies to ensure that only the proper item in the necessary amount is used to accomplish a task; aka stewardship What is supply discipline? Correct Answer: The compliance with established DA regulations to effectively administer supply economy; supply discipline applies to all functions and levels of supply and to the effective use of supply funds What methods are used to enforce supply discipline? Correct Answer: Combination of leadership, command emphasis, training, administrative measures, and disciplinary measures What must occur to effectively instill and maintain supply discipline? Correct Answer: Supervisors must routinely adhere to CSDP procedures and conduct supply discipline training for all sub.; e.g. hand receipt procedures and inventory techniques What should you do if you are a new HRH or are assuming a HR from someone? Correct Answer: - Inventory all the property, including components of end items, and verify SNs before you sign the HR - Whenever possible do the inventory together with the outgoing HRH - Verify component hand receipts and shortage annexes if there are any - For items on subhand receipts, verify that the subhand receipt holder is still authorized to have the property and is aware of their responsibility to safeguard the property, and obtain a current inventory from them What are the three classifications of Army property? Correct Answer: - Nonexpendable: property not consumed in use and retains its original identity during the period of use; property book officers managed - Durable: property not consumed during use, but does not require formal property book accountability - Expendable: property is consumed or loses its identity in use; includes items not consumed in use with a cost of less than $300 and is unclassified How long do active Army soldiers have before they have to initiate and present financial liability investigation of property loss to the appointing authority or approving authority? Correct Answer: No later than 15 calendar days after the date of discovering the discrepancy What is organization property? Correct Answer: Organization property is authorized to MTOE (modified tables of organization and equipment), or deployable/mobilization TDA units by their authorization document and installation What an item that has components is issued on a hand receipt, what must any nonexpendable and durable component shortages be recorded on? Correct Answer: DA Form 2062 (hand receipt/annex number) How often should leaders conduct clothing inspections or inventories? Correct Answer: At least annually, unless one of the following exist: - On completion of 6 months of active duty service - On arrival of newly assigned personnel - At duty station on return from overseas areas - Prior to departure and immediately upon return of personnel from attendance at service schools - Prior to departure of personnel for overseas movement or other permanent change of stations Commanders may permit SGT-SGM to provide a statement stating they have all their clothing and all items are serviceable What AR covers the Army Retention Program? Correct Answer: AR 601-280 What does RCP stand for? Correct Answer: Retention control point What Army doctrine reference publication (ADRP) and Army doctrine publication (ADP) describes the Army's view of leadership, outlines the levels of leadership (direct, organizational, and strategic), and describes the attributes and core leader competencies across all levels? Correct Answer: ADP/ADRP 6-22, Army Leadership What is ADRP 6-22 definition of leadership? Correct Answer: Process of influencing people by providing, purpose, direction, and motivation to accomplish the mission and improve the organization What is ADRP 6-22 definition of command? Correct Answer: The authority that a commander in the armed forces lawfully exercises over subs. by virtue of rank or assignment Explain formal leadership within an organization. Correct Answer: Formal leadership is granted to individuals by virtue of assignment to positions of responsibility and is a function of rank and experience; the UCMJ supports military leaders in positions of legitimate authority Explain informal leadership used within an organization. Correct Answer: Informal leadership exists throughout organizations, must support legitimate authority, and plays an important role in mission accomplishment; is not based on r