EMT FISDAP Exam 2 Multiple Choice Questions Provided with Accurate Answers

EMT FISDAP Exam 2 Multiple Choice Questions Provided with Accurate Answers EMT FISDAP Exam 2 Multiple Choice Questions Provided with Accurate Answers Which of the following steps is not part of the primary assessment of a responsive patient with a medical problem? A. Assess the patient's mental status B. Assess the adequacy of breathing C. Determine the patient's priority D. Obtain the patient's blood pressure D The general impression is an evaluation of all of the following except: A. the patient's chief complaint B. appearance C. the environment D. past medical history D You are assessing a patient wand making observations about the scene. Finding drug-use paraphernalia a t the scene of an emergency is an example of: A. an indication of the patient's chief complaint B. the environment part of the general impression C. an assessment of the scene safety D. a medical history of drug addiction B When the patient tells you, in his own words, why he requested that an ambulance be called, this is referred to as the: A. general impression B. chief complain C. primary assessment D. secondary assessment B During the general impression, the EMT should: A. look B. listen C. smell D. all of the above D One way to determine the patient's level of responsiveness it to: A. put ammonia inhalants into each nostril B. rub the patient's sternum briskly C. place the patent's hand in water D. press on the patent's nail beds B You are assessing a patient who fell of his bike and landed on hid right shoulder. First you determine his mental status using AVPU. What does the "A" in AVPU stand for? A. Action B. Airway C. Assess D. Alert D You have determined that your patient is a V as far as mental status is concerned. What does the "V" in AVPU stand for? A. Violent B. Very painful C. Verbal D. Venous C You are concerned because your patient may have a depressed mental status. What does the "P" in AVPU stand for? A. Priority B. Painful C. Position D. Patient B One major difference between the primary assessment of a responsive trauma patient and the primary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient is: A. the assessment is done more quickly on the responsive patient B. the unresponsive patient is a higher priority for immediate transport C. there is no difference between the two assessments D. a jaw-thrust maneuver should always be used on the responsive patient B You are assessing a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. She is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8. As the EMT in charge, you should: A. give high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask B. quickly valuate the patient's circulation and treat for shock C. suction the patient and perform rescue breathing D. provide positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen D During your primary assessment of a patient who is alert and has a breathing rate that is greater than 24, you should provide the patient with: A. positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen B. high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask C. low-concentration oxygen via bag-valve mask D. medium-concentration oxygen via nasal cannula B In the primary assessment, the circulation assessment includes evaluating all of the following except: A. pulse B. skin C. severity of bleeding C. blood pressure D If a patient's skin is warm, dry and a normal color, it indicates: A. a serious sunburn B. heat exposure C. alcohol abuse D. good circulation D Your patient has no life-threatening external hemorrhagic but has skin that is cool, pale and moist. This could be an indication of: A. increased profusion B. high blood pressure C. poor circulation D. cold exposure C To evaluate skin color in a dark-skinned patient, the EMT should also: A. evaluate the tissues of the lips or nail beds B. evaluate the tissues of the heels of the feet C. check the pupils of the eyes D. do all of these A When assessing the circulation during the primary assessment, the EMT should check for and control severe bleeding. This is important to do because: A. open woulds can become infected B. it may lead to long-term complications C. a patient can bleed to death in minutes D. the blood pressure may drop over time C When a life threat is observed in the primary assessment, the EMT should: A. complete the assessment, then treat B. treat is immediately C. determine the patient's priority, then treat D. package the patient for transport B High-priority conditions include: A. poor general impression B. unresponsiveness C. shock (hypoperfusion) C. all of these D All of the following would be considered high-priority conditions except: A. difficulty breathing B. responsive but not following commands C. an uncomplicated childbirth D. chest pain with systolic pressure less than 100 C During the primary assessment of an adult medical patient with a chief complaint of chest pain, you note that the breathing rate is 28. You should consider: A. oxygen by a nasal cannula B. providing bag-valve mask ventilations C. administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask D. using a paper bag to slow down the rate C In the adult trauma patient, why is the capillary refill no longer used to ass the circulation? A. it is not a good indicator B. only children have capillary refill C. it is still a very important step D. because EMT's have difficulty remembering to use it A The steps of the primary assessment: A. are patient dependent B. depend on the baseline vital signs C. must be followed in order D. depend on the age and sex of the patient C When doing an assessment on a patient who is apparently lifeless, the approach is adapted to include: A. the pulse check for at least 20 seconds B. the C-A-B approach per AHA Guidelines C. the routine A-B-C approach per AHA Guidelines D. none of these are appropriate B One of the key contributions to improvement in EMS over the years has been" A. the type II, van-style ambulance vehicle B. development of radio links among dispatcher, mobile units, and hospitals C. the military antishock trousers D. air conditioning in the transport vehicles B Components of a communications system include: A. base stations B. mobile units C. portable radios D. all of these D You will need to be alerting the trauma center of the patient's condition directly from the scene. because your portable radio does not have the power to reach the hospital from the scene, you will need to rely on a device that picks up radio signals from lower-powered units and re-transmits them at a higher power. This device is called a: A. mobile B. cellular C. repeater D. portable C the government agency that maintains order on the airwaves is called the: A. FCC B. FAA C. FEMA D. DOT A The purpose of always following the general principles of radio transmission are to allow all persons to use frequencies and to; A. avoid having to repeat orders for medical direction B. enable the EMT to talk in code language C. prevent delays D. all of these C Of the following components of a medical radio report, which is in the correct order? 1 - major past illness 2 - chief complaint 3 - unit identification and level of provider 4 - emergency care given A. 4, 1, 2, 3 B. 3, 4, 1, 2 C. 3, 2, 1, 4 D. 1, 2, 4, 3 C You arrive on the scene that includes a 58 year old male patient. The ambulance was called because he has had chest pain for the past hour. The "chest pain" in this situation is called the: A. major past illness B. chief complaint C. presenting diagnosis D. call type B You are en route to the hospital with a 27 year old female who is in pain. During your radio report you say, " the patient's abdomen feels rigid." You are actually advising the hospital of: A. the baseline vital signs B. the emergency medical care given C. the reponse of the patient to the emergency medical care D. pertinent findings of the physical exam D During you radio report, you state, "the patient's mental status has not changed during our care." You are attempting to advise the hospital of the: A. the baseline vital signs B. the emergency medical care given C. the reponse of the patient to the emergency medical care D. pertinent findings of the physical exam C Your local protocols require a direct medical order to allow you to assist the patient with her bronchodilator device.Whenever you request an order for medical direction over the radio, it is good practice to: A.repeat the physician's order word for word back to the physician B. question all verbal orders that are given C. speak quickly because the physician is busy D. call the physician back to verify A If you receive an order from the on-line physician for ten times the normal dose of a medication (i.e. 1,500 mg of ASA instead of 150 mg), what should you do? A. switch to another frequency to find another physician B. question the physician about the order C. follow the physician's order as stated D. ignore the order and do what you believe is correct B It is three in the morning and your partner is interviewing a patient with a minor complaint. You notice that he is standing with arms crossed looking down at the patient. What nonverbal message could he be sending to the patient? A. I am here to help you B. I am not really interested C. I can empathize with your problem D. I am afraid of catching your disease B You are treating a patient who was struck by an automobile. It is obvious that the patient has broken left because a bone is protruding through the skin. the patient asks you "Is my leg broken?" What would be the most appropriate response? A. Relax and stay calm. You will be all right B. I am not qualified to make that determination C. No, its a bad cut, and I'll control the bleeding with a bandage D. Yes, it is, and I will be as gentle as possible splinting it. D When treating a toddler who is sitting on the couch complaining of stomach pain, the best approach is to: A. kneel down so you are at the child's level B. speak louder so the child can hear you above all the crying C. star directly into the child's eyes D. tell the child you are a friend of his parents A The PCR serves as a legal document as well as a(n): A. press release form for your EMS agency B. receipt for the patient C. aid to research, education, and administrative efforts D. form to report all calls to the local police department C Why is it necessary to complete a PCR if, on each call, you give the emergency department staff a good oral report? A. The QI committee needs something to hold you to B. It provides a means for the ED staff to review the patient's prehospital care C. The ED usually does not listen to oral reports D. Duplication is helpful in emergency call documentation B The copy of the PCR left at the hospital: A. is returned to the state for quality review and follow-up B. is thrown out once it is key-punched and added to computer file C. should become part of the patient's permanent hospital record D. is sent to the regional Emergency Medical Services agency C You are called to court to testify about a civil matter when a patient sues the city for a injury that occurred in a public place. Which of the following will best help you recall the events of the call? A. the questioning by the defense's attorney B. the questioning of the plaintiff's attorney C. a complete and accurate PCR D. your tape recording of the call dispatch C The person who completed a PCR may be called to court to testify about: A. the call in a criminal proceeding B. the care provided to the patient C. the call in a civil proceeding D. all of these D The routine review of PCRs for conformity to current medical and organizational standards is a process called: A. initial feedback B. quality improvement C. stress debriefing D. system research B Each individual box on a PCR is called a: A. narrative B. data element C. key punch D. assessment B According to the NHTSA, in addition to other data elements, the minimum data set on a PCR should include all of the following except: A. respiratory rate and effort and skin color and temperature B. times of incident, dispatch, and arrival at the patient C. patient's SSN D. capillary refill for patients less than 6 years old C The time of dispatch is an example of ___ data on the PCR? A. assessment B. run C. patient D. narrative B Examples of patient data on a PCR would be: A. date of birth and age B. time of arrival at the hospital C. ambulance identification number D. the hospital transported to A Experienced EMT's consider a good PCR as one that: A> protects them against QA review B. is vague enough to prevent lawsuit C. paints a picture of the patient D. identifies symptoms overlooked by the patient C A statement such as "the patient has a swollen, deformed extremity" on the narrative of the PCR is an example of: A. subjective information B. objective information C. pertinent negative information D. police officer's statment B All of the following are examples of information that be put in quotation marks on the PCR except: A. bystander information B. chief complain C. objective information D. police officer's statments C In the narrative section of a PCR, the EMT should: A. list his or her conclusions about the situate B. include pertinent negatives C. use the radio codes for each treatment D. list the vital signs and times obtained B Medical abbreviations should be used on a PCR: A. to save space in the narrative section B. to replace all words you cannot spell C. only if they are standardized D. to ensure correct interpretation by physicians C You are treating a 22 year old who fell off his motorcycle. He has some road rash and no major injuries and is mostly concerned about his bike. He does not want to go to the hospital and had a friend who can drive him home and take care of him. Before leaving the scene, you should: A. document assessment findings and care report B. try again to persuade the patient to go to the hospital C. ensure the patient is able to make rational, informed decision D. the patient's definitive diagnosis D When completing a PCR on a patient refusal, the EMT should document all of the following except: A. that he or she was willing to return if the patient changed his or her mind B. the complete patient assessment C. that alternative methods of care were offered D. the patient's definitive diagnosis D If the EMT forgot to administer a treatment that is required by the state treatment protocols, he or she should: A. document on the PCR only treatment that was actually given B. be sure to document an excuse for why the treatment was skipped C. record that the patient was given the forgot treatment D. do none of these A You are in a rush during a call and did not have time to take a second set of vital signs. Your partner says, just write in another set ten minutes after the first one. Falsification of information on a PCR may lead to: A. suspension or revocation of your license or certification B. better EMT education C. longer response times D. none of these A To correct an error discovered while writing the PCR, the EMT should: A. scribble out the error so it cannot be seen B. draw a line through the error, initial it, and write the correct information C. place his or her initials over the error D. erase the error completely, and then write the correction B On returning to the station after a call, you have the chance to reread your PCR. If information was omitted by mistake, you should: A. prepare another report and substitute that for the earlier one B . notify the service Medical Director immediately C. add a note with the correct information, the date, and initial it D. do nothing because information should never be added after the call C Occasionally, EMT's may have only a limited amount of information about the patient to document on the PCR. An example of an instance in which it would not be unusual of the EMT to obtain only a limited amount of information is: A. during a multiple-casualty incident B. during an interhospital transfer C. while performing a nonemergency run D. when encountering a child abuse case A You were just on a call about which your agency medical director requires you to complete a special incident report. Special situation (incident) reports: A. document events that should be reported to local regulatory authorities B. can be submitted at any time after the call C. need not be accurate and or objective D. are required on each call A Ambulance services and EMS personnel are required by ___ to take steps to safeguard patient confidentiality: A. OSHA law B. HIPAA C. the NHTSA D. the U.S. DOT B There are laws, both state and federal, that protect patient privacy. An example of a method that an ambulance service would use to safeguard patient confidentiality is: A. requiring employees to place completed PCRs in a locked box B. using only patient last names during radio transmission C. allowing only PCRs with patient name to be distributed during QA meetings D. none of these is an acceptable procedure A The policy an ambulance service develops concerning patient rights and confidentiality must take into consideration: A. state regulations B. local regulations C. HIPAA D. all of these D The term used to describe the conclusion that an EMT makes about a patient's condition after assessing that patient is called the: A. presumptive diagnosis B. EMT diagnosis C. EMS diagnosis D. all of these are correct D The analytical process that assists the EMT in reaching a field diagnosis is referred to as: A. active assessment B. passive assessment C. critical thinking D. detailed assessment C The basic approach that clinicians use to arrive at a diagnosis includes each of the following except: A. gather information B. administer many lab tests C. consider the possibilities D. reach a conclusion B When a clinician draws up a list of conditions that may be the cause of the patient's condition today, this is referred to as the: A. admission diagnosis B. presenting problem C. differential diagnosis D. assessment finding C The signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious is referred to as a(n): A. red flag B. black triage tag C. unstable situation D. none of these A When a highly experienced physician comes to a diagnosis, he or she most likely used: A. heuristics B. pattern recognition C. shortcuts D. all of these D The traditional approach to diagnosis involves: A. narrowing down a long list B. jumping to conclusions C. taking lots of shortcuts D. eliminating similar conditions A Each of the following are considered common heuristics or biases except: A. illusory correlation B. availability C. representativeness D. underconfidence D When a clinician is specifically looking for evidence that supports the diagnosis he or she already has in mind, he or she is committing a(n) _____ bias. A. anchoring B. confirming C. satisfying D. illusionary B When a patient does not fit the classic pattern, such as a cardiac patient without crushing chest pain, the EMT has to be careful not to make a(n) ___ error or bias. A. confirmation B. representativeness C. overconfidence D. availability B An EMT recently had a patient with heat stroke. The next time he or she has a patient in a warm environment, the EMT is more likely to think of this as the diagnosis as opposed to more common problems, such as dehydration. This bias is referred to as: A. overconfidence B. illusory correlation C. confirmation D. availability D The EMT should be skeptical about on condition being the actual cause of another condition a patient presents with. Drawing conclusions about the cause of a diagnosis can lead to a(n): A. anchoring adjustment B. illusory correlation C. search satisfying bias D. availability bias B You are treating a patient who was found on the floor in the nursing home. It seems evident that he has a fractured hip as he lies on the floor in pain. If you stop the search for diagnosis as soon as you come up with the cause of today's problem, this can lead to: A. missing out on the secondary diagnosis B. overconfidence and misdiagnosis C. overestimating the frequency of the problem D. all of these A If you are an EMT who wants to think like a highly experienced physician in your assessment of patients, you should try to: A. learn to hate ambiguity B. utilize a single strategy in all cases C. understand the limitations of technology and people D. reflect on what others have learned C The EMT who wants to think like a highly experienced physician tries to do each of the following techniques except: A. organize data in her or his head B. reflect on what he or she has learned C. realize that no one strategy works for everything D. try not to learn from others D You are an EMT treating a patient who has developed a rash and uticaria on her chest and face. If you were to begin treating this patient as a victim of a severe allergic reactions rather than questioning her about previous development of a similar rash, you would be exhibiting an example of: A. an availability bias B. an illusionary correlation C. having overconfidence in your judgement D. an appropriate shortcut to take B When evaluating a patient during the focused physical exam, the EMT needs to ____ each body part. A. auscultate and visualize B. percuss and palpate C. inspect and palpate D. visualize and percuss C When a patient tells you that he called because he cut his wrist with a razor, this is called the: A. primary assessment B. chief complaint C. SAMPLE history D. secondary assessment B The history of the present illness or injury for a trauma patient include: A. the direction and strength of the force B. actions taken to prevent or minimize injury C. equipment used to protect the patient D. all of these D The physical exam includes the basics of the inspection, auscultation , and : A. interaction B. intuition C. palpation D. observation C The "P" in DCAP-BTLS refers to: A. punctures/penetrations B. palpation/pulse C. priapism/penetrations D. paradoxical motion/punctures A The "S" in DCAP-BTLS refers to: A. soft tissue B. stable C. swelling D. stomach C Your patient was thrown from his motorcycle when he stopped suddenly. His thighs are very painful and a strange shape. When a body part is injured and it no longer has its normal shape, this is referred to as a: A. hematoma B. deformity C. fracture D. crepitation B Your patient has been outdoors in the sun most of the day. He has reddened and blistered areas on his shoulders and neck called: A. abrasions B. burns C. lacerations D. contusions B In the secondary assessment, you will be checking the patient from head to foot for pain and tenderness. The difference between pain and tenderness is: A. pain occurs only when you squeeze an injury site, whereas tender areas hurt all the time B. pain is considered unbearable, whereas tenderness is usually bearable C. tenderness may not hurt unless the area is palpated, whereas pain is evident without palpation. D. pain hurts only for the first 10 minutes, whereas tenderness doesn't go away C A common result of injured capillaries bleeding under the skin is called: A. swelling B. puncture C. laceration D. abrasion A When is it appropriate to apply a cervical collar? A. If the mechanism of injury exerts great force on the upper body B. If there is any pain in the abdomen C. If there is any burn injury to the neck D. If the patient has experienced any trauma A You are treating a pitcher who was hit in the face with a ball that was hit by the batter. You remember from your EMT training that any blow above the ___ may damage the cervical spine. A. clavicles B. diaphragm C. femur D. pelvis A Experienced EMT's often refer to a soft cervical collar as: A. the device of choice for a neck injury B. a "neck warmer" C. the requirement for all auto collision patients D. the preferred extrication collar B If a cervical collar is the wrong size, it may: A. cause additional injury to the spine B. make breathing more difficult or obstruct the airway C. prevent the patient from moving her neck D. take too much time to adjust and apply correctly B The need for cervical immobilization should be based on: A. the trauma patient's level of responsiveness B. the location of injuries to the patient C. the mechanism of injury D. all of these D When assessing and interviewing a patient, we ask about and look for signs and symptoms. What is a sign? A. A photograph of the patient's wrecked vehicle B. The patient's description of how the injury occur ed C. An objective finding you can see, hear, or feel when examining the patient D. A subjective finding that the patient tells you about his current condition C When considering the mechanism of injury (MOI), which of the following would not be considered a significant MOI in an adult? A. high-speed motorcycle crash B. vehicle-pedestrian collision C. a 10-foot fall D. Rollover vehicle collision C You are treating a patient who was in the front seat of an automobile involved in a collision. You observe a spider-web crack in the windshield and the facial lacerations on the patient. Most likely the patient: A. will have a life-threatening head injury B. did not ear a seat belt or three-point harness C. will also complain of leg injuries D. was involved in a rollover collision B The EMT should list and look under the airbag after the patient has been removed from the vehicle in order to: A. obtain the serial number of the airbag B. see if a hazardous chemical had been released C. note any visible damage to the steering wheel D. determine if it deployed properly C When assessing the head of an adult male critical trauma patient, the EMT should te for ___ in addition to wounds and deformities. A. hematoma B. scalp lacerations C. crepitation D. abraisions C When assessing the neck of an adult female critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___ in addition to wounds and deformities. A. jugular vein distension B. swelling C. lacerations D. burns A The neck veins are usually not visible when the patient is: A. lying flat B. sitting up C. supine D. prone B When assessing the chest of an adult female critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___ in addition to crepitations and deformities. A. hematoma B. paradoxical motion C. hemothorax D. jugular vein distention B When assessing the abdomen of an adult male critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___ in addition to wounds and deformities. A. distention of the kidneys B. colostomy and /or ileostomy C. crepitation D. paradoxical motion B When assessing the pelvis of an adult male critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___ in addition to wounds, deformities and tenderness. A. paradoxical motion B. burns C. priapism D. rectal bleeding C An important principle to remember when examining a patient is to: A. tell the patient what you are going to do B. assume spinal injury C. try to maintain eye contact D. all of these are correct D If you are treating a severely injured trauma patient, it may be appropriate to skip the: A. initial physical exam B. detailed physical exam C. baseline vital signs C. primary assessment B A difference between the detailed physical exam and the rapid trauma exam includes: A. skipping the face, ears, eyes, nose and mouth in the detailed exam B. the detailed exam is usually done en route to the hospital C. the lungs are not listened to in a detailed exam D. the extremities and posterior are not assessed in the rapid exam B The final step of the detailed physical exam is to: A. complete the examination of airway, breathing and circulation B. make sure you have notified the emergency department C. remove the collar and recheck the neck D. roll the patient to examine the posterior of the body B You are examining a patient who was struck on the head last night. His mental status is altered, and he has a bruise behind the ear. This is referred to as: A. Raccoon's eye's B. Orbital hematoma C. Battle's sign D. Cushing reflex C When performing the detailed physical exam, you note blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This tells you that the: A. patient was wearing contact lenses B. patient has a serious brain injury C. patient's eye is bleeding inside D. all of these C Clear fluid that is draining from the ears and nose is called _____ fluid. A. lymphatic B. cerebrospinal C. mucous D. synovial B In addition to looking for deformities,. you should look for all of the following except ____ when examining the mouth. A. possible airway obstruction B. loose or broken teeth C. tongue lacerations or swelling D. crepitation D The detailed physical exam is not designed for the: A. trauma patient with a significant mechanism of injury (MOI) B. trauma patient with an unclear mechanism of injury (MOI) C. medical patient with very few signs and symptoms D. critical trauma patient who could have a medical cause in addition to being involved in a car crash C If you are treating a patient who could be either medical or trauma, it is always best to assess for: A. the medical problem first B. both problems at once C. the trauma problem first D. primary survey problems first D Your patient is an alert 58 year old male who is complaining of chest pain. The components of the secondary assessment for a responsive medical patient include all of the following except: A. history of the present illness B. SAMPLE history C. baseline vital signs D. rapid trauma exam D Many memory aids are used during the assessment process. OPQRST is a memory aid to help the EMT remember the: A. questions to ask about the past medical history B. questions that expand on the history of the present illness C. status of the patient's condition D. levels of the patient's mental status B When you ask a 65 year old woman with chest pain, "Can you think of anything that might have triggered or caused this pain?" you are questioning her about the ____ of the pain. A. onset B. provocation C. quality D. radiation B When you ask a male patient with back pain, "How bad is the pain?" you are questioning him about: A. quality B. severity C. time D. radiation B Why is it important for the EMT to determine the T in OPQRST when questioning the 58 year old male with a chief complaint of chest pain? A. the patient's temperature could be a contributing factor B. the patient may have fell and injured his tibia C. it is helpful to determine the time when the pain began D. the patient may have sustained a tension pneumothorax C The 55 year old male continues to discuss his condition with you. His chief complaint is chest pain and when you ask "Do you have nausea or have you been vomiting?" you are questioning him about his: A. signs and symptoms B. medication history C. allergies D. pertinent past history A The alert 58 year old male who is complaining of chest pain goes on to describe other recent hospitalizations and the medical condition the doctor is treating him for. This information is considered: A. unnecessary information B. pertinent past history C. the cause of today's event D. the reason the ambulance was called B When you ask an elderly female patient "How have you been feeling today?" you are asking her about the? A. pertinent past history B. signs and symptoms C. events leading to the illness D. last oral intake C When interviewing a patient with a specific chief complaint and a known history, the EMT may need to: A. contact medical direction for additional interview questions B. ask additional questions pertinent to the complaint C. immediately administer medications D. any one of these B You are treating a 62 year old female who is complaining of difficulty breathing. This medical patient does not take any prescribed medication for her condition, so you should generally: A. look for a medical identification device B. consult with the patient's personal physician C. transport the patient to the hospital D. do all of these C In terms of your initial approach to the focused history and physical exam of a middle aged male patient, the biggest difference between a responsive and an unresponsive patient is that: A. the responsive patient gets he OPQRST questions last B. the unresponsive patient will be given a rapid physical exam first C. bystanders become more important if the patient is responsive D. a rapid trauma exam is not done on an unconscious patient B You will be conducting a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive 54 year old female medical patient. You should include all of the following steps except: A. look for jugular vein distention B. determine firmness or rigidity of abdomen C. check for incontinence of urine or feces D. ask the SAMPLE history questions D When assessing a 28 year old female patient who has a medical complaint, be sure to check the extremities for: A. central cyanosis B. sensation and motor function C. edema and discoloration D. capillary refill in all adult patients B When conducting a physical exam of an unconscious adult patient with a suspected medical problem, you remember there was a "Vial of Life" sticker on the front door of the residence. This is important because it may: A. reveal the patient's name B. give clues to the patient's home address C. reveal that additional medical identification is in the refrigerator D. be the cause of the emergency C In most regions, in addition to taking the pulse and respirations, the baseline vital signs of adult medical patients include: A. determining what they last ate B. assessing the CO2 in their blood C. determining their capillary refill time D. the oxygen saturation D When you are deciding which steps to follow in assessing your patient, what should you consider first and why? A. the past medical history of the patient because it predicts today's problem B. the primary assessment because that identifies the life threats C. the physical exam because subtle injuries are often severe D. the vital signs reveal all the serious medical conditions the patient may have B The study of drugs, their solutions, and their effects is called: A. anatomy B. physiology C. medicinology D. pharmacology D Medications that are routinely carried on the EMT-level EMS unit are: A. aspirin, oral glucose and oxygen B. oxygen and nitroglycerin C. epinephrine and prescribed inhalers D. all of these A Aspin is administered by the EMT in he field to: A. treat headaches B. dilate the coronary arteries C. help prevent clot formation D. eliminate the pain from a serious injury C When might administration of aspirin be contraindicated? A. when there is no water available B. if the patient has a history of GI bleeding C. if the patient may be having a heart attack D. all of these B Your patient is a teenager who's parent states, "she had not accepted her disease and is managing it poorly." Poorly managed diabetes can cause: A. hypoxia, or low oxygen B. altered mental status C. dilation of the coronary arteries D. absorption of poisons B You are treating a patient who is a diabetic with an altered mental status. He has a gag reflex, so oral glucose is your treatment. This is given between the patient's cheek and gum using a tongue depressor because: A. this method allows slow swallowing and absorption into the bloodstream B. it will not be aspirated if the patient suddenly becomes unconscious C. this area will cause the patient to regurgitate the stomach's content D. it will assist in dilating the coronary vessels as much as possible. A As an important part of your history taking, you will determine if the patient is taking any specific medications. Examples of medications a patient may have in his or her possession and that the EMT may assist the patient in taking under the appropriate circumstances are: A. glucose injections and anti convulsants B. home oxygen, antihypertensives, and anti-inflammatories C. epinephrine auto-injector, a bronchodilator inhaler, nitroglycerin, and aspirin D. insulin, antihypertensives, and anticonvulsants C Your patient us a 52 year old female who states that she ahs a long history of asthma and chronic bronchitis. it would not be unusual for her to carry ____ in her purse. A. nitroglycerin B. an epinephrine auto-injector C. a bronchodilator D. a bronchoconstrictor C Your 62 year old patient has a history of cardiac problems and takes nitro. The drug nitroglycerin is used to ___ vessels. A. dilate the peripheral B. constrict the peripheral C. dilate the coronary D. constrict the coronary C The comprehensive government publication listing all drugs in the United States is called the : A. Physician's Desk Reference B. Hazmat Guide C. US Pharmacopoeia (USP) D. National Medicine Guide C The name that the manufacturer uses in marketing a drug is called the ___ name: A. generic B. trade C. official D. original B Your patient tells you he is not supposed to take a specific medication when his blood pressure is low or he feels dizzy. A circumstance in which a drug should not be used because it may cause harm to the patient or offer no effect in improving the patient's condition or illness is called a: A. indication B. side effect C. adverse reaction D. contraindication D You are administering a medication for a specific purpose according to your treatment protocols. An action of a drug that is other than the desired action is called a: A. side effect B. overdose C. contraindication D. systemic effect A Part of the treatment to a seriously ill patient will involve administration of a drug. Prior to administering the medication, you must know all of the following except: A. the route of administration B. the proper dose to administer C. the actions the medication will take D. both the generic and chemical names D You are treating a patient who is under a doctor's care for chronic pain and is taking medication for his condition. Drugs prescribed for pain relief are called: A. antidysrythmics B. analgesics C. anticonvulsants D. antihypertensives B your history reveals that the suspected cardiac patient is also taking a medication to control his hypertension. Drugs prescribed to reduce high blood pressure are called: A. antidysrythmics B. analgesics C. anticonvulsants D. antihypertensives D Your patient tells you that she is taking a medication to control her irregular heartbeat. Drugs prescribed for heart rhythm disorders are called: A. antidiabetics B. bronchodilators C. antidysrhyhmics D. anticonvulsants C Upon interviewing an asthmatic patient, you find that she is taking a medication for her disease. Drugs prescribed to relax the smooth muscles of the bronchial tubes are called: A. bronchospasms B. bronchodilators C. anticonvulsants D. bronchoconstrictors B Your patient has had a seizure. You find on interviewing her after she wakes up that she has not been taking her medication this week. Drugs prescribed for prevention and control of seizures are called: A. antiabetics B. antuhypertensives C. anticonvulsants D. antipdepressants C Your patient is taking a drug that was prescribed to help regulate his emotional activity, and to minimize the psychological and emotional peaks and valleys. These kinds of drugs are called: A. antidepressants B. analgesics C. antidysrhythmics D. anticonvulsants A When a patient is administered tiny aerosol particles to treat a disease, such as asthma, this is considered the ___ route of administration. A. intravenous B. sublingual C. inhaled D. oral C EMT's who administer medication or assist patients in taking their prescribed meds according to protocols need to know about pharmacodynamics. An example of a result of understanding the pharmacodynamics of a specific medication is: A pediatric patients would normally require larger doses B. geriatric patients have difficulty eliminating medications C. heavier patients require ten times the normal dose D. all of these B The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called: A. Duty of act B. Scope of practice C. Advance directives D. Good Samaritan law B Legislation that governs the skills and medical interventions that may be performed by an EMT is: A. Standardized (uniform) throughout the country B. Different from state to state C. Standardized (uniform) for regions within a state D. Governed by the US Department of Transportation B When the EMT-B makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this is considered a ____ of the EMT. A. Advance directive B. Protocol C. Ethical Responsibility D. Legal Responsibility C Which one of the following is not a type of consent required for any treatment or action by an EMT? A. Child and mentally incompetent adult B. Implied C. Applied D. Expressed C When you inform the adult patient of a procedure you are about to perform and its associated risks, you are asking for her or his: A. Expressed consent B. Negligence C. Implied consent D. Applied consent A You are treating a patient who was found unconscious at the bottom of a stairwell. Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the EMT's life-saving interventions is called: A. Expressed B. Negligence C. Implied D. Applied C Your record of a patients refusal of medical care (aid) or transport should include all of the following except: A. Informing the patient of the risks and consequences of refusal B. Documenting the steps you took C. Signing of the form by the Medical Director D. Obtaining a release form with the patient's witnessed signature C Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital against his or her will may result in ____ charges against the EMT. A. Abandonment B. Assault and battery C. Implied consent D. Negligence B Which one of the following is an action you should not take if a patient refuses care? A. Leave phone stickers with emergency numbers B. Recommend that a relative call the daily physician to report the incident C. Tell the patient to call his or her family physician if the problem reoccurs D. Call a relative or neighbor who can stay with the patient C Another name for DNR is: A. Deviated nervous response B. Duty not to react C. Refusal of treatment D. Advance directive D There are varying degrees of DNR orders, expressed through a variety of detailed instructions that may be part of the order, such as: A. Allowing CPR only if cardiac or respiratory arrest was observed. B. Allowing comfort-care measures such as intravenous feeding C. Disallowing the use of long term life-support measures D. Specifying that only 5 minutes of artificial respiration will be attempted A In a hospital, long-term life-support and comfort-care measures would consist of intravenous feeding and: A. Routine inoculations B. The use of a respirator C. Infection control by the health care providers D. Hourly patient documentation B If an EMT with a duty to act fails to provide the standard of care, and if this failure causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMT may be accused of: A. Res ipsa loquitur B. Negligence C. Abandonment D. Assault B Leaving a patient in the hallway stretcher in a busy ED and leaving without giving a report to a health care professional is an example of: A. Liability infraction B. Battery C. Abandonment D. Breach of duty C The EMT should not discuss information about a patient except to relay pertinent information to the physician at the emergency department. Information considered confidential includes: A. Patient history gained through interview B. Assessment findings C. Treatment rendered D. All of these D The EMT can release confidential patient information in all of these following circumstances except to: A. Inform other health care professional who need to know information to continue care B. Report incidents required by state law, such as rape or abuse C. Comply with a legal subpoena D. Protect the other victims of a motor vehicle collision D A medical identical devise that indicates serious patient medical conditions comes in the form of each of the following except: A. Bracelets B. Necklaces C. Cards D. Patches D You responded to a high-speed collision involving a motorcycle and an automobile. The 22 year-old male cyclist has severe head injuries and is not likely to live through the evening. When treating this critical patient, who happens to have an organ donor card, the EMT should: A. Transport without delay and document a DNR B. Treat the patient the same as any other patient and inform the ED physician C. Withhold oxygen therapy from the patient to keep the organ hypoxic D. All of these B You are at the scene of a home invasion where the homeowner was shot to death by the perpetrators. At this crime scene, you should: A. Avoid disturbing any evidence at the scene unless emergency care requires B. Immediately remove the patient from the scene C. Move all obstacles from around the patient to make more room to work D.Search the house for clues to the cause of the crime A Commonly required reporting situations include all of the following except: A. Child and elder abuse B. Crimes in public places C. Sexual assault D. Domestic abuse B The extent of limits of the EMT's job is called the: A. Ethical dilemma B. National curriculum C. Scope of practice D. Regional protocol C You were called to the scene of an incident where a 21 year-old male was knocked unconscious in a bar fight. Upon your arrival, the patient is awake and has a broken nose but no life threats. He admits to drinking six beers in the last hour. He wants to refuse medical attention. Why should you discourage a refusal? A. He is not legally old enough to consent B. He may not be mentally competent at this time C. Patients die from broken noses all the time D. He is unable to actually sign the release B The federal law designed to protect the patients private medical information is the: A. NHTSA B. ANSI C. HIPAA D. OSHA C You are on the scene of a call where a patient barricaded himself and his wife in their home and is threatening to do harm. The police have been at the scene for hours and after the wife escaped, they rushed in. It is now your responsibly to transport this now-restrained patient to the local ED. What should be your highest priority? A. Monitoring the patients mental status and vital signs B. Making sure your documentation shows you did not apply handcuffs C. Restraining the patient so he is not able to move D. Explaining to the patient that he no longer has any rights to refuse care A The police are concerned about the presence of microscopic evidence at the scene of a violent assault. Your crew was asked to be careful and limit their involvement in the scene to essential patient care. What are examples of microscopic evidence? A. The position the patient was initially found in B. Any dirt and carpet fibers C. Fingerprints that were found at the scene D. The condition of the scene B The scene size-up is the first part of the patient assessment process. It begins as you approach the scene, surveying it to determine: A. if there are any threats to your patient's safety B. the number of injured C. personal safety of all those involved in the call D. the mechanism of injury (MOI) A Which of the following is the most accurate statement about scene size-up? A. it takes place as you are approaching the scene B. is it replaced by patent care once you arrive at the scene C. it occurs during the first part of the assessment process D. it continues throughout the call D If you arrive at a collision scene where there are police, fire vehicles, and other ambulances already present, you should: A. immediately begin patient care B. conduct your own scene size-up C. ensure that no bystanders are injured D. all of these B Which of the following is not an appropriate action when you near the scene of a traffic collision? A. look and listen for other EMS units as you near intersections B. look for signs of collision-related power outages C. observe traffic flow to anticipate blockage at the scene D. attempt to part your vehicle downhill from the scene D When you are in sight of the collision scene., you should watch for the signals of police officers and other emergency service personnel because: A. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured persons B. the first ones on the scene are considered to be in charge C. federal law requires you to follow the command of other responders D. they are considered the medical-care experts on the scene A When there are no apparent hazards, consider the danger zone to extend at least ____ feet in all directions from the wreckage. A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200 B When a collision vehicle is on fire, consider the danger zone to extend at least ___ feet in all directions, even if the fire appears small and limited to the engine compartment. A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200 C It is essential that the EMT do a good scene size-up. Your scene size-up should identify: A. the potential fora a violent situation B. the name and amount of toxic substances C. the number of patients and their diagnoses D. all of these A The EMT's Standard Precautions equipment during the scene size-up may include all of the following except: A. eye protection B. disposable gloves C. face mask or eyeshield D. nonrebreather mask D Standard Precautions should be taken with all patients. The key element of Standard Precautions is to: A> always wear all the protective clothing B. always have personal protective equipment readily available C. place equipment on the patient as well as the rescuer D. determination which body fluids are a danger to the EMT B Certain injuries are common to particular situations. Injuries to bones and joints are usually associated with: A. fights and drug usage B. falls and vehicle collisions B. fires and explosions D. bullet wounds B Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in: A. immobilizing the patient's spine B. determining which Standard Precautions to use C. predicting various injury patterns D. all of these C The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced by the laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, stat that: A. the faster you enter a turn, the more your vehicle will be pulled straight B. the slower the speed, the greater the energy loss C. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force D. the mass or weight of an object is the most important contributor to an injury C You are treating a patient who was involved in a head-on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up-and-over" pathway. To which part of her body was she most likely to have sustained injuries? A. Skull B. Fibula C. Knees D. Femur A Which of the following is least likely to be considered a mechanism of injury for ta patient who was involved in ahead-on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up-and-over" pathway. A. steering wheel B. windshield C. brake pedal D. dashboard C You are on the scene of a car crash. You patient has stable vital signs and is complaining of knee, leg, and hip pain. He also states that he was in the front seat of the car and did not have his seat belt on. What type of collision did he most likely experience? A. head-on, up-and-over B. rear-end C. head-on, down-and-out D. rotational impact B Which type of collision is most serious when the occupant is not restrained because it has the potential for multiple impacts? A. side impact B. rear-end impact C. head-on, up-and-over D. roll-over D You are walking around a vehicle that was involved in a collision. All of the following are examples of mechanisms of injury except a: A. 18 inch dent into the side door B. spiderweb crack in the windshield C. broken steering column in a collision D. flat rear tire D A severe fall for an adult is: A. over 15 feet B. often accompanied by an amputation C. less than 10 feet D. always fatal A You are evaluating a patient who sustained a penetrating injury. the injury is usually limited to the penetrated area in a ____ injury. A. low-velocity B. medium-velocity C. high-velocity D. super-velocity A The pressure wave around the bullet's tract through the body is called: A. exsanguination B. gas penetration C. cavitation D. pressure damage C You are evaluating a patient who sustained an injury caused by a blow that hit the body but did not penetrate the skin. This type of injury is called a(n): A. inertia trauma B. cavitation C. blunt-force trauma D. rotational impact C In which of the following sitaitons would it be necessary for you and your partner to call for additional assistance? A. you are treating a patien twho had flulike symptoms and also has a toddle with similar symptoms B. Your patient is a 350 pound male who fell down the stairs and has a broken leg C. you are treating a patient with a deep laceration in his right forearm D. your patent loses consciousness while you are carrying her to the ambulance B While in the living room of a private home and treating a patient for nausea, headache, and general body weakness, your eyes being to tear. Three family members have the same symptoms. You should immediately: A. evacuate all people form the building B. call for three additional ambulances C. notify the police department D. begin to flush out everyone's eyes A If the number of patients is more than the responding units can effectively handle, the EMT should: A. involve bystanders in care of the injured B. call for additional EMS resources immediately C. advise medical direction that assistance is needed D. do all of these B When arriving at the scene of a collision the EMT should: A. start placing flares across the road B. don head protection, bunker coat, and a reflective vest C. immediately start additional units D. contact medical direction on the radio B A significant danger faced by the EMT is violence. On arriving at the scene of a private home, you hear screaming from inside; there are beer cans piled up on the front porch; and, as you knock on the door, it suddenly gets very quiet inside. What should you do next? A. Enter the residence and search for weapons B. Contact the dispatcher to inquire if they have ever had violence at this location C. Retreat to a safe location and ask for the police to respond to secure the scene D. Yell into the house that you are EMS and not the police C