Summary CCS Exam Prep Complete Q&A 2022/2023.
CCS Exam Prep Complete Q&A 2022/2023. 10. A coworker complained of sudden onset of chest pain and went to the emergency room. A myocardial infarction was ruled out. You would code A. the myocardial infarction as if it were an established condition. B. both the infarction and the chest pain and sequence the infarction first. C. as an impending myocardial infarction. D. only the chest pain. 11. A(n) ____________ form is used to record the patient's diagnoses and the services performed for a particular visit. It also includes codes (CPT, HCPCS, and ICD-10-CM) used specifically by that physician's office. A. authorization B. ABN (Advance Beneficiary Notice) C. superbill D. EOB (Explanation of Benefits) 12. Your organization is sending confidential patient information across the Internet using technology that will transform the original data into unintelligible code that can be re-created by authorized users. This technique is called A. a firewall. C. a call-back process. B. validity processing. D. encryption 13. The special form that plays the central role in planning and providing care at nursing, psychiatric, and rehabilitation facilities is the A. interdisciplinary patient care plan. B. medical history and review of systems. C. interval summary. D. problem list. 14. In the CPT coding system, when there is no code to properly represent the work performed by the provider, the coder must use this code. A. not otherwise specified B. not elsewhere classifiable C. unlisted procedure D. miscellaneous code 15. The physician listed the diagnoses as congestive heart failure with acute pulmonary edema. You will code A. the CHF only. B. the edema only. C. both the CHF and the edema; sequence the CHF first. D. both the CHF and the edema; sequence the edema first. 16. When coding multiple wound repairs in CPT, A. only the most complex repair is reported. B. only the least complex repair is reported. C. up to nine individual repair codes may be reported. D. all wound repairs are grouped and coded, with the most complex reported first. 21. Which of the following is coded as a late effect in ICD-10-CM? A. tinnitus due to allergic reaction after administration of eardrops B. mental retardation due to intracranial abscess C. rejection of transplanted kidney D. nonfunctioning pacemaker due to defective soldering 29. When a patient presents with a primary neoplasm with metastasis and treatment is directed toward the secondary neoplasm only, A. code only the primary neoplasm as the principal diagnosis. B. the primary neoplasm is coded as the principal diagnosis and the secondary neoplasm as an additional diagnosis. C. the secondary neoplasm is coded as the principal diagnosis, and the primary neoplasm as an additional diagnosis. D. code only the secondary neoplasm as the principal diagnosis. 36. The autonomic nervous system has two divisions: A. the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system. B. the sympathetic and the efferent peripheral system. C. the parasympathetic system and the peripheral nervous system. D. the afferent peripheral system and the somatic nervous system 37. HPV or human papillomavirus is A. caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. B. a vaginal inflammation that is caused by a protozoan parasite. C. also known as genital warts. D. characterized by painful urination and an abnormal discharge. 38. A marked loss of bone density and increase in bone porosity is A. lumbago. C. spondylitis. B. osteoarthritis. D. osteoporosis. 39. The blood disorder in which red blood cells lack the normal ability to produce hemoglobin is called A. aplastic anemia. C. pernicious anemia. B. hemolytic anemia. D. thalassemia. 40. Which diagnostic technique records the patient's heart rates and rhythms over a 24-hour period? A. echocardiography C. Holter monitor B. electrocardiography D. angiocardiography 41. A document that acknowledges patient responsibility for payment if Medicare denies the claim is a(n) A. explanation of benefits. C. advance beneficiary notice. B. remittance advice. D. CMS-1500 claim form. 42. The patient sees a participating (PAR) provider and has a procedure performed after meeting the annual deductible. If the Medicare-approved amount is $200, how much is the patient's out-ofpocket expense? A. $0 C. $40 B. $20 D. $100 43. The physician's office note states: "Counseling visit, 15 minutes counseling in follow-up with a patient newly diagnosed with diabetes." If the physician reports code 99214, which piece of documentation is missing to substantiate this code? A. chief complaint C. exam B. history D. total length of visit 44. A participating (PAR) physician is one who A. can bill 115% above the Medicare Fee Schedule. B. signs an agreement to participate in the Medicare program and agrees to accept whatever Medicare pays for a provider or service. C. receives 5% less than other non-PAR physicians. D. submits claim forms using ICD-10-CM procedure codes. - (correct Answer): B 45. The purpose of the Correct Coding Initiative is to A. increase fines and penalties for bundling services into comprehensive CPT codes. B. restrict Medicare reimbursement to hospitals for ancillary services. C. teach coders how to unbundle codes. D. detect and prevent payment for improperly coded services 47. In order to correctly code a hernia repair, the coder needs to know all of the following EXCEPT A. type of hernia. B. whether the hernia is strangulated or incarcerated. C. age of the patient. D. whether the patient is obese or not. 48. You have been hired to work with a computer-assisted coding initiative. The technology you will be working with is A. electronic data interchange. C. message standards. B. intraoperability. D. natural language processing 49. A patient is seen in the emergency department following an accident. The physician documents that the wound required multiple layers and extensive undermining. According to CPT definitions, this type of repair would be classified as A. complex. C. simple. B. intermediate. D. advancement flap. 50. CMS delegates its daily operations of the Medicare and Medicaid programs to A. the office of the Inspector General. B. the PRO in each state. C. the National Center for Vital and Health Statistics. D. the Medicare administrative contractor (MAC). 51 . The emergency room discharge diagnosis for this outpatient encounter is "rule out myocardial infarction." The coder would assign A. a code for a myocardial infarction. B. a code for the patient's symptoms. C. a code for an impending myocardial infarction. D. no code for this condition. - (correct Answer): B 52. The _______________ are the organizations that contract with Medicare to perform reviews of medical records with the corresponding Medicare claims to detect and correct improper payments. A. Atlas Systems B. medical outcomes study C. recovery audit contractors (RACs) D. adjusted clinical groups (ACGs) system 53. _______________________ is a defect characterized by four anatomical abnormalities within the heart that results in poorly oxygenated blood being pumped to the body. A. Atrial septal defect C. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Coarctation of the aorta 54 . Urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, incontinence, and hesitancy are all symptoms of A. BPH. C. salpingitis. B. end-stage kidney disease. D. genital prolapse. 55. Down's syndrome, Edwards' syndrome, and Patau syndrome are all examples of _________ defects. A. musculoskeletal C. genitourinary tract B. chromosomal D. digestive system - (correct Answer): B 56. The type of anemia caused by a failure of the bone marrow to produce red blood cells is A. acute blood-loss anemia. C. iron-deficiency anemia. B. sickle cell anemia. D. aplastic anemia. 57. Which of the following procedures can be identified as "destruction" of lesions in CPT coding? A. removal of skin tags C. laser removal of condylomata B. shaving of skin lesion D. paring of hyperkeratotic lesion 58. The chargemaster relieves the coders from coding repetitive services that require little, if any, formal documentation analysis. This is called A. grouping. C. soft coding. B. hard coding. D. mapping. - (correct Answer): B 59. A patient has a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingectomy. The coder selected the following CPT codes: 58150, 58700, 58700. This type of coding is referred to as A. upcoding. C. maximizing. B. unbundling. D. optimization. - (correct Answer): B 60. The APC payment system is based on what coding system(s)? A. AMA's CPT codes B. CPT and ICD-10-CM diagnosis and procedure codes C. ICD-10-CM diagnosis and procedure codes D. CPT/HCPCS codes 61. When is it appropriate to use category Z85, history of malignant neoplasm? A. Primary malignancy recurred at original site and adjunct chemotherapy is directed at the site. B. Primary malignancy has been eradicated and no adjunct treatment is being given at this time. C. Primary malignancy eradicated and the patient is admitted for adjunct chemotherapy to primary site. D. Primary malignancy is eradicated; adjunct treatment is refused by patient even though there is some remaining malignancy. - (correct Answer): B 66. The diagnosis reads "first-, second-, and third-degree burns of the right arm." You would code A. the first degree only. C. the third degree only. B. the second degree only. D. each degree of burn separately 68. Codes from category O36, known or suspected fetal abnormality affecting the mother, should A. be assigned if the fetal conditions are documented. B. be assigned at the discretion of the physician. C. be assigned when they affect the management of the mother. D. never be assigned. 69. There are a limited number of late effect codes in ICD-10-CM. When coding a residual condition where there is no applicable late effect code, one should code A. only the residual condition. B. the cause followed by the residual condition. C. the residual condition is coded first, followed by cause. D. only the cause of the residual condition 70. Which of the following are considered a (late effect) sequelae regardless of time? A. congenital defect B. nonunion, malunion, scarring C. fracture, burn D. poisoning - (correct Answer): B 71. A patient has major surgery and sees the surgeon 10 days later for an unrelated E/M service. Indicate the modifier that should be attached to the E/M code for the service provided. A. -24 C. -59 B. -25 D. -79 72. In the diagnosis "first-, second-, and third-degree burns of the chest wall," a code is required for A. the first-degree burn only. B. the second-degree burn only. C. the third-degree burn only. D. for each first-, second-, and third-degree burn. 73. Which of the following contains a list of coding edits developed by CMS in an effort to promote correct coding nationwide and to prevent the inappropriate unbundling of related services? A. National Coverage Determination (NCD) B. National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) C. CPT Assistant D. Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) - (correct Answer): B 74. Which of the following would NOT require HCPCS/CPT codes? A. hospital ambulatory surgery visit C. clinic visit B. hospital outpatient visit D. hospital inpatient procedure 75. Which code represents an HCPCS Level II National Code? A. 1036T C. D0417 B. 99281 D. 66680 90. The hospital implemented an electronic query system to allow more effective communication with physicians and other health practitioners to improve clinical documentation in the patient record. This program is known as A. core measure reporting. B. clinical documentation improvement (CDI). C. tumor registry (TR). D. evidence-based medicine. - (correct Answer): B 91. To enter the results of a urinalysis into the computer system, you would use a(n) A. laboratory system. C. pharmacy system. B. radiology system. D. order entry/results reporting system. 92. You have been asked to give an example of a clinical information system. Which one of the following would you cite? A. laboratory information system C. billing system B. financial information system D. Admission, Discharge, Transfer 93. Which of the following acts was passed to stimulate the development of standards to facilitate electronic maintenance and transmission of health information? A. Health Insurance for the Aged B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act C. Conditions of Participation D. Hospital Survey and Construction Act - (correct Answer): B 94. Alisa has trouble remembering her password. She is trying to come up with a solution that will help her remember. Which one of the following would be the BEST practice? A. using the word "password" for her password B. using her daughter's name for her password C. writing the complex password on the last page of her calendar D. creating a password that utilizes a combination of letters and numbers 95. The purpose of the notice of privacy practices is to A. notify the patient of uses of PHI. B. notify the patient of audits. C. report incidents to the OIG. D. notify researchers of allowable data use. 96. Before a user is allowed to access protected health information, the system confirms that the patient is who he or she says they are. This is known as A. access control. C. authorization. B. notification. D. authentication. 97. Which of the following can be released without consent or authorization? A. summary of patient care B. de-identified health information C. personal health information D. protected health information - (correct Answer): B
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- 20 de febrero de 2023
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certified coding specialist ccs ahima
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ccs exam prep complete qampa 20222023
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a coworker complained of sudden onset of chest pain and went to the emergency room a myocardial infarction was rule
