AAAE ACE Operations Module 3 Questions and Answers 100% Pass

AAAE ACE Operations Module 3 Questions and Answers 100% Pass Ground vehicles on movement areas should be limited to what types of operations? Airport self-inspections, maintenance and emergencies Do part 139 restrictions governing ground vehicle and pedestrian activity apply to non-movement areas? No The FAA suggests what four planning meetings to discuss specifics of ground vehicular movements? Airside construction, emergency response, snow and ice removal, low visibility Aircraft safety is endangered by what four principle ground vehicle causes? increased traffic, non-standard vehicle patterns, vehicles without radios or markings, untrained operators Airports must have one of three different control mechanisms for ground vehicles at ATCT controlled airports, what are they? two-way radio communication is preferred; an escort with a two-way radio; method of signs, signals and/or guards Training for personnel operating vehicles in the movement area is required how often? At least annually. How long are movement area driver training records kept? initial and recurrent training records for 24 months, although should be kept as long as a person is authorized to operate at the airport How long are movement area vehicular accident or incident records retained? 12 months Consequences of violating any ground vehicle rules or procedures should be spelled out in the Airport Certification Manual (T/F). True What is the term used to describe any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and takeoff of aircraft? Runway incursion What are the categories of incursions? Category A thru D with A as the most severe consequences and D as the least How are the four incursion categories distinguished? Category A - a collision was narrowly avoided; Category B - a significant potential for collision exists; Category C - ample time and/or distance to avoid a collision; Category D - no immediate safety consequences Incursion causes are categorized into what three primary groups? Operational error (ATC), pilot deviation, vehicle/pedestrian deviation What three human error categories are defined for incursions? communications, airport familiarity, loss of situational awareness What is a contributing factor in almost every runway incursion? Human error Ground communications and procedures are normally outlined in an LOA between the airport and FAA; at an airport without an ATCT where can this information be found? Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) What frequency should ground vehicle operators monitor/use at non-ATCT airports? the airport's common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF) At what point does the departure leg of a normal airport traffic pattern terminate? At least 1/2 mile beyond the departure end of the runway and within 300ft of the traffic pattern altitude Which direction of turns is standard in an airport traffic pattern? Left turns What is a segmented circle and when is an airport required to have one? A ground marking visible to pilots that depicts the landing runway, landing direction, and traffic pattern, with a wind cone (lighted if night carrier ops) and mandated for use at certificated airports that don't have an operating ATCT. What is the direction of turn for aircraft in a holding pattern, how long does one turn take and how much vertical separation is there from other aircraft? Right hand turns, 4 minutes, 1,000ft When the ATCT points a light gun in your direction, what do the following colors mean - steady green, steady red, flashing red, white, alternating red and green? Steady green - okay to proceed; steady red - stop; flashing red - get off the runway or other surface; white - return to starting point on airport; alternating red and green - exercise extreme caution What are the two main categories of airspace in the U.S.? Regulatory and nonregulatory What are the types of regulatory airspace? Classes A-E, Restricted Areas, Prohibited Areas What are the types of nonregulatory airspace? Military Operating Areas, Warning Areas, Alert Areas and Controlled Firing Areas Within the two categories of regulatory and nonregulatory airspace what four types of airspace exist? Controlled, Uncontrolled, Special use and Other Class A airspace consists of what area(s)? 18,000'MSL up to FL600; IFR mandatory Class B airspace consists of what area(s)? SFC - 10,000'MSL around busy airports, individually tailored; ATC clearance and two-way radio required Class C airspace consists of what area(s)? SFC - 4,000ft AGL above an airport within 5NM of the airport and a shelf extending to 10NM from the airport from 1,200ft to 4,000ft AGL; 2-way radio and transponder Mode C required Class D airspace consists of what area(s)? SFC - 2,500ft AGL above an airport with a control tower, tailored to encompass any instrument approach procedures; 2-way radio required Class E airspace consists of what area(s)? All controlled airspace that isn't already classified as A-D, normally 14,500 - 18,000' MSL. Includes federal airways, 1,200ft AGL up to but not including 18,000ft MSL Class G airspace consists of what area(s)? Anything not classified as controlled airspace A-E is uncontrolled G. What is the airspace where flight activities must be confined because of their nature or where limitations are imposed on aircraft operations that are not part of those operations? Special-use airspace What is the airspace extending outward from 3NM of the US coast that contains activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft? Warning area What are the three requirements for a navigational system to be considered effective? integrity, accuracy and availability/reliability What weather minimums are associated with a visual approach? 1,000ft and 3SM When is a contact approach allowed? With at least 1 mile visibility and the pilot uses visual references when they become available What are the decision height and visibility minimums for a Cat II ILS? 100'DH, 1,200'RVR What category and type instrument approach allows for an auto-land capability assuming the aircraft is appropriately equipped and the pilot is qualified? CAT IIIC ILS Is runway visual range (RVR) equipment required for a CAT I ILS? No, only required for CAT II and III ILS Where are RVR(s) located on an airfield for a CAT I ILS? Either the runway midpoint or the aiming point If the older two device RVR system is in use, what visibility range increment is reported? visibility in 200ft increments; newer single device RVRs report in 100ft increments What is RVV? runway visibility value; either collected by instrumentation or practical observation and reported in portions of a mile Where is the localizer antennae typically located? 1,000ft past the departure end of the runway The localizer beam projects down the center of the runway at a 10-degree divergent angle for what distance? 18NM What are the dimensions of the localizer critical area? 250ft radius around the antennae connecting to a 400ft wide rectangle centered on the runway centerline extending 2,000ft down the runway A 3 degree glideslope produces what slope ratio? 30:1 Where is the glideslope antennae typically located? at about 1,000ft down the runway alongside the aiming point and at least 250ft on either side of the runway What are the dimensions of the glideslope critical area? 500ft wide by 1,200ft long in front of the antennae Where is the inner marker for an ILS located? 1,000ft short of the threshold Where is the decision height for an ILS typically located? At the middle marker, which is 2,000-6,000ft short of the threshold; this places an aircraft on the glidepath at 200ft What effective range is associated a terminal VOR? Low altitude VOR? 25 NM; 40NM What are the dimensions of the VOR protection zone? a radius of 750 to 1,000ft around the VOR What equipment uses a signal transmitted from the aircraft to a ground station to determine distance from the station? distance measuring equipment (DME) What ground-based system augments satellite coverage to allow category I GPS instrument approaches? Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) What is required to allow GPS approaches to be CAT II or III? A local ground-based transmitter known as a Local Area Augmentation System What is the radius of the critical area around most radars? 1,000ft What Doppler radar system, installed at various locations on an airport, provides information on windshear type, location and intensity? Low Level Windshear Alert System (LLWAS) What system displays information from the LLWAS and Terminal Doppler Weather Radar? The Integrated Terminal Weather Radar System (ITWAS) What system, installed in the local vicinity of airports, uses several sources of data to detect and predict lightning strikes? Precision Lightning Warning System (PLWS) What system helps predict the water content of approaching snow to better predict the potential severity of ice and snow conditions at an airport? Weather Support to Deicing Decision Making (WSDDM) What weather radar system helps detect and predict not only precipitation, but also wind-shear and severe weather at an airport? Next-Generation Radar (NEXRAD); when installed at the airport it is known as Terminal Doppler Weather Radar (TDWR) How far is the transmission from an ASOS or AWOS designed to reach? 25NM and up to 10,000ft What is considered the primary weather observing system in the U.S.? Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS) / Automated Weather Sensor System (AWSS) What are the basic components of an ASOS? sensors; data collection/processing units; and peripherals/displays What sensors are part of the ASOS suite? cloud height, visibility, precipitation, freezing rain, pressure, temperature, dew point, wind direction/speed, rain accumulation What has FAA and the National Weather Service determined to be Service Level D for airports? ASOS only What has FAA and the National Weather Service determined to be Service Level C for airports? An ASOS with a human observer augmenting that ASOS data What has FAA and the National Weather Service determined to be Service Level B for airports? Level C plus augmented data beyond ASOS capability What has FAA and the National Weather Service determined to be Service Level A for airports? Level B plus additional specified requirements According to FAA what must occur if something is determined to be an obstruction to air navigation? it must be removed, marked or lighted When does proposed alterations or construction require notice to the FAA using Form 7460-1? greater than 200ft AGL; near or on a public or military airport, heliport or seaplane base; a traverse way that exceeds standards; requested by the FAA When is an object considered near a public use airport with a runway longer than 3,200ft? within 20,000ft; notice required if it exceeds a slope of 100:1 What is the surface centered on the runway centerline extending 200ft past the runway end with a width varying from 250 to 1,000ft? The primary surface What is the surface that commences at the edge of the primary surface with a slope of 7:1 that acts as a transition to the horizontal surface? The transitional surface What is the surface that begins 200ft from the runway end (at the edge of the primary surface) and extends outward with varying dimensions for visual, non-precision and precision approach runways? The approach surface What is the surface that is a level plane 150ft above the runway elevation used to protect aircraft during circling or missed approaches? The horizontal surface (5,000ft radii for visual runways and 10,000ft for all others) What surface starts at the perimeter of the horizontal surface and continues upward at a slope of 20:1 for a horizontal distance of 4,000ft? The conical surface What conclusions may FAA draw from a Part 77 study? obstruction is a hazard to air navigation; the object or activity is objectionable; the need exists to alter, remove or light the object; the plan is approved; the proposal would have an adverse impact on the safe and efficient use of navigable airspace; a change in operational procedure is feasible or required Does the FAA have the authority to stop construction or alteration? No. That right is reserved for local authorities. However the FAA may choose to change airspace or approach minimums based on the activity or obstacle.