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Exam (elaborations)

CPHQ EXAM 3 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2022/2023 UPDATE

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CPHQ EXAM 3 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2022/2023 UPDATE CPHQ EXAM 3 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2022/2023 UPDATE CPHQ   CPHQ EXAM 3 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2022/2023 UPDATE Relaese without written authorization is regulated by national/state statutes & may include all of the following except: A. Patients family member B. Governing body representative C. Senior leadership - CEO D. Healthcare personnel involved with this patients care at this time E. QI, risk management, & UM staff F. Health Info Management staff Correct answer- A What is the term used for information used for decision making? A. Data B. Information C. Decisions Correct answer- C What is the abstract representation of facts, concepts, & instructions? A. Data B. Information C. Decisions Correct answer- A What is data translated into results? A. Data B. Information C. Decisions Correct answer- B Would 1 day of pics be data or information? Correct answer- Data Would 5 days of pics be data or information? Correct answer- Information Which type of information system supports direct care processes such as lab/radiology results? A. Decision support systems B. Clinical information systems C. Administrative non clinical support systems Correct answer- B Which type of information system aids in day to day operations- billing, financial, human resources? A. Decision support systems B. Clinical information systems C. Administrative support systems Correct answer- C Which type of information system deals with strategic planning functions - cause & effect data? A. Decision support systems B. Clinical information systems C. Administrative support systems Correct answer- A In this decision support system charts are reviewed, medical records reviewed by analysts, severity & risk adjusted information identified: A. Chart based system B. Code based system C. Administrative system D. Clinical information system Correct answer- A In this decision support system information is taken from the medical record or coding medical record, based on retrospective administrative data, uses clinical information spanning entire stay, has lower cost & larger sample size, submission of payer data deemed public information required by the states: A. Chart based system B. Code based system C. Administrative system D. Clinical information system Correct answer- B Which type of data is measured? A. Categorical B. Continuous Correct answer- B What type of data is count? A. Categorical B. Continuous Correct answer- A Count, discrete, qualitative; considered attribute data with no quantitative value; binary data - 2 possibilities or values; example male or female: A. Ordinal categorical data B. Nominal categorical data C. Continuous data D. A& B Correct answer- B Nominal data put into categories & rank ordered - some sense of order; example agree, neutral, disagree: A. Ordinal categorical data B. Nominal categorical data C. Continuous data D. A & B Correct answer- A Measured on scales that theoretically have no gaps, considered variable data; values on a thermometer, height & weight: A. Ordinal categorical data B. Nominal categorical data C. Continuous data D. A & B Correct answer- C Which is not an example of categorical data? A. How many people that had surgery B. Hypertension vs non hypertension C. Temp 105 & comes down to 101 D. Both A & B Correct answer- C Which is not an example of continuous data? A. Average daily census over 6 months B. Systolic & diastolic BPs C. Number of people that was admitted to surgery today D. Temp 105 dropping to 100 Correct answer- C Examines processes & results against a reference point either internally or externally with competitors & other organizations proving similar services: A. Comparison B. Differentiation C. Benchmarking Correct answer- A Examine processes & results that represent best practices for similar activities inside or outside the healthcare industry: A. Comparison B. Differentiation C. Benchmarking Correct answer- C Every element in the population has an equal or random chance of being selected: A. Nonprobability sampling B. Probability sampling Correct answer- B It's not possible to estimate the probability that every element has been included: A. Nonprobability sampling B. Probability sampling Correct answer- A After a random selection of first case, draw every nth case from population; every nth patient: A. Simple random sampling B. Systematic sampling C. Stratified random sampling D. Convenience sampling Correct answer- B Each individual in the population has an equal chance to be chosen; put all names in hat & draw for door prize: A. Simple random sampling B. Systematic random sampling C. Stratified random sampling D. Convenience sampling Correct answer- A Any available group of subjects is used; lack of randomization; example- information about participants who took one instructors CPHQ class but not all classes taught: A. Simple random sampling B. Systematic random sampling C. Stratified random sampling D. Convenience sampling Correct answer- D The population is divided into groups; each member of the group has an equal probability of being selected; example- patient with particular diseases: A. Simple random sampling B. Systematic random sampling C. Stratified random sampling D. Convenience sampling Correct answer- C Subjects suggest other subjects (subtype of convenience sampling); example cancer patients in a clinic who identify other cancer patients they know: A. Snowball sampling B. Purposive or judgment sampling C. Expert sampling D. Quota sampling Correct answer- A A judgement is made about the most representative sample; example- 15 charts per month, 5% or 30 whichever is greater: A. Snowball sampling B. Purposive or judgment sampling C. Expert sampling D. Quota sampling Correct answer- D Experts in a given area are selected due to their access to information; example- surgery department managers about staff satisfaction: A. Snowball sampling B. Purposive or judgment sampling C. Expert sampling D. Quota sampling Correct answer- C A particular group is subjectively selected based on criteria; example nurses group represent cross section of women of women: A. Snowball sampling B. Purposive sampling C. Expert sampling D. Quota sampling Correct answer- B The extent to which an instrument yields the same result on repeated trials: A. Validity B. Reliability C. Central tendency Correct answer- B The degree to which instrument measures what it is intended to measure: A. Validity B. Reliability C. Central tendency Correct answer- A Degree to which instrument adequately represents universe of content; looks like it's valid for this use: A. Content (face) validity B. Criterion related validity C. Construct validity D. Central tendency Correct answer- A The degree to which the score on instrument is related to a criterion; job description & performance evaluation; CPHQ exam: A. Content (face) validity B. Criterion related validity C. Construct validity D. Central tendency Correct answer- B The degree to which instrument measures the theoretical construct or trait it's designed to measure; patient satisfaction, personality types: A. Content (face) validity B. Criterion related validity C. Construct validity D. Central tendency Correct answer- C Measures of central tendency are: A. Mean B. Mode C. Median D. All of the above Correct answer- D The sum of all scores/ values divided by the total number of scores; average; most commonly used; most sensitive to extreme scores; used with interval & ratio data: A. Range B. Mode C. Mean D. Median Correct answer- C Measure that corresponds to middle score; doesn't take quantitative value of individual scores into account: A. Range B. Mode C. Mean D. Median Correct answer- D Score or value that occurs most frequently & is easiest to determine; can be calculated quickly & easily; can vary widely from sample to sample (unstable): A. Range B. Mode C. Mean D. Median Correct answer- B Difference between lowest to highest; measure of variability- how measures spread out, degree to which values differ; reported as values, not distance; provides quick estimate of variability; varies easily & affected by extreme values: A. Range B. Mode C. Mean D. Median Correct answer- A Measure of variability- average of deviations from the mean; most frequently used statistic for measuring degree of variability; the symbol that represents it is called sigma: A. Six sigma B. Range C. Standard deviation D. Mode Correct answer- C Also called a bar chart, usually displayed with bars touching; displays results of one measured variable in 6-12 groups; all groups equal in range & mutually exclusive (no overlap); also called a frequency chart; used to present information about location, shape, & spread of data; used to summarize the capacity of the process performance; used to find patterns in data; used for continuous data that's counted & grouped in discrete subsets; does not tell you if the process is stable: A. Pareto diagram B. Run chart C. Histogram D. Control chart Correct answer- C Prioritizes a series of problems, issues, or cause of problems; highest bars on the left, smallest on the right - in rank order; highest bar = most frequently occurring; 80% of problem comes from 20% of causes; 20% of data causes 80% of problem; use when it's important to know where to focus improvement efforts: A. Pareto diagram B. Run chart C. Histogram D. Control chart Correct answer- A A graphical display of data plotted in some type of order, generally over time; also called a trend chart or times series chart; tool for understanding variation; used to display data to make process performance visible; used to determine whether a change resulted in improvement; used to determine if gains made through improvement efforts are being sustained or are slipping away; used to determine how much variation is present; can detect signal of change (a non random pattern in the data): A. Pareto diagram B. Run chart C. Histogram D. Control chart Correct answer- B Six consecutive points either all above or all below the center line is: A. Trend B. Shift C. Astronomical D. Number of runs Correct answer- B 5 or more consecutive points all going up or all going down ; if the value of two or more consecutive points is the same, count the first one then ignore the identical points when counting: A. Trend B. Shift C. Astronomical D. Number of runs Correct answer- A Signaled by crossings of the center line; a series of points on one side of the center line; to determine this count the number of times the data line crosses the center line & add one; also count the number of data points not falling on the median: A. Trend B. Shift C. Astronomical D. Number of runs Correct answer- D Used for detecting unusually large or small numbers; data that's blatantly obvious as a different value; universal agreement that a value is unusual: A. Trend B. Shift C. Astronomical D. Number of runs Correct answer- C Used when you don't yet have a great deal of data; used to rapidly detect signals of improvement; makes the amount of process variation visible ; aids in detecting improvement; helps to determine whether improvement has been maintained: A. Histogram B. Pareto diagram C. Run chart D. Scatter diagram Correct answer- C A statistical tool for determining if a process is stable (& predictable) ; used to differentiate common cause from special cause variation; developed by Walter Shewhart (sometimes called a Shewhart chart); data is usually displayed over time & most often in time order: A. Histogram B. Pareto diagram C. Run chart D. Control chart Correct answer- D Illustrates whether one variable might have an impact on another variable; can illustrate the strength of that impact; extent that the two variables are related is called a correlation; independent variable- the Leader variable; dependent variable- the follower variable: A. Run chart B. Scatter diagram C. Control chart D. Special cause variation Correct answer- B Displays possible cause & effects identified through brainstorming; also called a fishbone or Ishikawa diagram; analyzes potential causes of a problem or source of variation; need at least 4 categories of causes; some pre-label the categories before completing the diagram: A. Histogram B. Control chart C. Cause & Effect diagram D. Pareto diagram Correct answer- C Graphic display of a process as it's known to the authors , owners or team; outlines the sequence & relationship of the pieces of the process; different individuals may have slightly different views of how the process really flows; as part of a root cause analysis or failure mood & effects analysis; anticipate any problems before implementing an action plan ; develop a contingency plan; develop a new process or redesign a current process; identify problem, analyze data, & plan solution: A. Flow chart B. Control chart C. Scatter diagram D. Run chart Correct answer- A Used to analyze the difference between two means (scores): A. P test B. T test C. Deployment chart D. Affinity diagram Correct answer- B Core measures are reported quarterly by hospitals to: A. CMS B. The joint commission C. DHH D. A & B Correct answer- D In this stage of team development people start to push against the boundaries; conflict between team members; resist taking on tasks; members express individuality & resist group or peer influence; team leader should manage conflict & use it to energize the team: A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing Correct answer- B In this stage of team development the team works harmoniously & is productive; goals are achieved; team leader can delegate much of the work & concentrate on developing team members: A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing Correct answer- D In this stage of team development the people start to resolve their differences, appreciate colleagues strengths & respect your authority as leader; develop close ties & strong team identity; team leader challenges the team in this stage: A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing Correct answer- C In this stage of team development the team members are positive & polite; getting to know one another; agree on goal & vision; team leader plays a dominant role , directive, provide role clarification; minimal work done in this stage: A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing Correct answer- A Formal leader of QPI project; responsible for overall project; align resources & monitor progress; align resources & monitor programs; hold others accountable for change; inspires team members; is not a team player; serves as a coach or consultant: A. Team Leader B. Team facilitator C. Sponsor D. Champion E. Team member Correct answer- C Vested in outcome of improvement efforts; guides team to achieve successful outcomes & reach established goals; specific responsibility for guiding team through meeting process to achieve objectives; involved in meeting content & process; provides direction & support for the team: A. Team leader B. Team facilitator C. Sponsor D. Champion E. Team member Correct answer- A Moves team along; not vested in outcome; promotes effective group dynamics; is concerned with how decisions are made; isn't a team member, coach/consultatant; focuses on meeting & improvement process; keeps team on track; has expertise regarding use of QPI tools: A. Team leader B. Team facilitator C. Sponsor D. Champion E. Team member Correct answer- B Vested in outcome; shares knowledge & expertise of process or issue addressed by team; responsible for both content & process of team meetings; shares responsibility for focusing on objective, contributing information, analyzing data, staying on track, making decisions, managing time, continually improving team: A. Team leader B. Team facilitator C. Sponsor D. Champion E. Team member Correct answer- E Opinion leaders who provide credibility & are integral to the social structure; respected clinicians or staff with influence through reputation or leadership qualities; support the change & work for its implementation: A. Team leader B. Team facilitator C. Sponsor D. Champion E. Team member Correct answer- D This was originally an organizational reaction to increasing litigation but now has a more proactive role: A. Risk management B. Quality improvement C. Case management Correct answer- A Process to evaluate clinical & non-clinical: patient satisfaction, quality of services, adherence to policy & procedures; when out of compliance, corrective action needs to be taken; performance improvement measures may need to be taken: A. Clinical practice compliance B. Service quality compliance C. Documentation compliance Correct answer- B Process to evaluate whether clinical practitioners are complying with clinical practice guidelines/protocols; if not following guidelines/protocols: determine if practitioner has documented an acceptable patient variation/reason for not following; refer practitioner to peer review or other evaluation mechanism: A. Clinical practice compliance B. Service quality compliance C. Documentation compliance Correct answer- A Process to evaluate if entries into medical records are done, complete, comprehensive, & timely; if not - performance improvement measures may need to be taken, individual may need training or coaching: A. Clinical practice compliance B. Service quality compliance C. Documentation compliance Correct answer- C Change that's small, requires minimal effort (new form, obtaining same product) : A. First order change B. Second order change C. Third order change D. Fourth order change Correct answer- A Change that is complex, requires significant change in behavior (new computer system or clinical guidelines): A. First order change B. Second order change C. Third order change D. Fourth order change Correct answer- B National Patient Safety Goals were developed by: A. CMS B. The joint commission C. IHI D. National Quality Forum Correct answer- B Who established 34 safety practices? A. CMS B. The joint commission C. IHI D. National quality forum E. Leapfrog group Correct answer- D Uses NQF safety standards & identified 4 additions for hospitals: computerized physician order entry, evidence based hospital referral, intensive care unit physician staffing, safe practices score: A. CMS B. The joint commission C. IHI D. National quality forum E. Leapfrog group Correct answer- E Who has the Clean Hands global campaign? A. AHRQ B. WHO C. IHI D. NCQA Correct answer- B Who reports & has initiatives such as Partnering with Patients for Safety? A. AHRQ B. WHO C. IHI D. NCQA Correct answer- C Who has strategic programs & initiatives such as HEDIS performance measurement tool? A. AHRQ B. WHO C. IHI D. NCQA Correct answer- D Who has a free patient safety culture survey for hospitals, medical offices, nursing homes, & pharmacy? A. AHRQ (Agency for Healthcare Research & Quality) B. WHO C. IHI D. NCQA Correct answer- A Who owns the safety culture? A. Quality B. Risk management C. Safety officer D. Leaders Correct answer- D When investigating medical errors you should do all of these except: A. Focus on the outcome B. Focus on the issue or error C. Collect information from the practitioners involved D. Review the information Correct answer- A Myocardial infarction patients who fail to receive beta blockers or flu shots not given: A. Overuse B. Misuse C. Abuse D. Underuse of care Correct answer- D Prescribing a drug when a patient is allergic to it: A. Overuse B. Misuse C. Abuse D. Underuse of care Correct answer- B Drugs given without justification such as antibiotics for a common cold or failing to follow effective options that cost less/cause fewer side effects: A. Overuse B. Misuse C. Abuse D. Underuse of care Correct answer- A Who identifies, manages, & reports sentinel events? A. Quality improvement B. Safety officer C. Risk management D. Leadership Correct answer- B What was designed to eliminate handwriting issues (Cynthia Paige needs this! Lol) & control medication selection choices of physicians? A. CPOE computerized physician order entry B. A scribe C. BCMA - bar code medication administration D. A pixis system Correct answer- A Purpose is to eliminate wrong medication to wrong patient: A. CPOE B. A scribe C. BCMA D. A pixis system Correct answer- C Designed to have information about care of patient in one accessible place for interdisciplinary team: A. CPOE B. BCMA C. EMR D. Abduction/Elopement Security System Correct answer- C Designed with different alarms, i.e., bands for babies & parents, electronic locked or sensored doors @ elevators, stairwells, etc.: A. CPOE B. BCMA C. EMR D. Abduction/elopement security system Correct answer- D Systematic & proactive method of identifying & preventing failures before they occur; used for new system/process, redesign of system/process in early stages, & existing systems/processes; analysis completed for each failure identified (known or potential): A. Root cause analysis B. Strategic planning C. Failure mode & effects analysis (FMEA) D. All of these Correct answer- C Systematic process aimed at finding the basic problem & taking action to correct the problem after it has occurred; must bed identified when variation is inherent in process & reducing variation is desired; requirement of The Joint Commission in response to a sentinel event: A. RCA B. Strategic plan C. FMEA D. All of these Correct answer- A Patient safety event examples include: A. Elopement B. Hemolytic transfusion reaction C. Falls D. Rape E. All of them Correct answer- E

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