Pathophysiology Patho Exam Test #1 Completed with 100% Correct Answers

Pathophysiology Patho Exam Test #1 Completed with 100% Correct Answers Pathophysiology Patho Exam Test #1 Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding a eukaryotic cell? They: A. are smaller than prokaryotes. B. contain organelles. C. lack a nucleus. D. are deficient in histones B. contain organelles. The function of the histone in a eukaryotic cell is best described as: A. cell division. B. cell movement. C. adenosine triphosphate (ATP) formation. D. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) supercoiling D. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) supercoiling The outer membrane of the eukaryotic cell is also referred to as the: A. nucleolus. B. plasmalemma. C. cytoplasm. D. cytosol. B. plasmalemma. The appropriate term for the organelle that is responsible for oxidative phosphorylation is the: A. Golgi complex. B. mitochondria. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. nucleolus. B. mitochondria. The nature of an amphipathic lipid molecule is best described as: A. hydrophobic. B. hydrophilic. C. both hydrophobic and hydrophilic. D. nonpolar. C. both hydrophobic and hydrophilic. It is true that a "cellular receptor" A. is found only in the nucleus. B. can bind with only large molecules. C. delivers protein to the cell's surface. D. can bind with molecules called ligands. D. can bind with molecules called ligands. The process that involves neurotransmitters diffusing across the synaptic cleft is defined as: A. chemical synapsing. B. paracrine signaling. C. autocrine signaling. D. autostimulation. A. chemical synapsing. When discussing cellular energy, it is correct to state that: A. glycolysis is the building of sugar molecules. B. oxidative cellular metabolism is a single reaction making ATP. C. oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria. D. anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the presence of oxygen. C. oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria. The term "diffusion" is best described as: A. movement of a solute molecule from high to low concentration. B. movement of water down a concentration gradient. C. transference of both water and a solute down a concentration gradient. D. mechanical pressure of water pushing against the cellular membrane. A. movement of a solute molecule from high to low concentration. A discussion regarding a solution would include mention that: A. a hypotonic solution has a lower solute concentration (more dilute) than body solution. B. a hypertonic solution has a lower solute concentration (more dilute) than body solution. C. osmolality is a measure of the concentration of molecules per volume of solution. D. osmolarity is a measure of the concentration of molecules per weight in a water solution. A. a hypotonic solution has a lower solute concentration (more dilute) than body solution. The appropriate term for an "energy-releasing process" is: A. anabolism. B. catabolism. C. substrate. D. second messenger. B. catabolism. The simultaneous movement of two molecules in one direction is best described as: A. symport. B. antiport. C. uniport. D. passive transport. A. symport. Plasma proteins exert a force called: A. filtration pressure. B. hydrostatic pressure. C. oncotic pressure. D.hyperbaric pressure. C. oncotic pressure. The process by which cells "drink" is referred to as: A. pinocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. exocytosis. D. potocytosis. A. pinocytosis. The process by which nerve and muscle cells become more positive than negative is referred to as: A. repolarization. B. hyperpolarization. C. depolarization. D.action potentialization. C. depolarization. Which of the following bases are single-ringed structures in the DNA molecule? A. Cytosine and thymine B. Cytosine and adenine C. Thymine and guanine D. Guanine and adenine A. Cytosine and thymine The term that describes the DNA subunit of one deoxyribose molecule, one phosphate group, and one base is: A. polypeptide. B. double helix. C. nucleotide. D. codon. C. nucleotide. Which of the following statements regarding codons is TRUE? A. There are 80 possible codons. B. There are three codons that signal the end of a gene. C. There are 70 codons that specify amino acids. D. Each amino acid has one codon. B. There are three codons that signal the end of a gene. The function of DNA polymerase is to: A. synthesize RNA from the DNA template. B. synthesize a polypeptide. C. perform base-pairing in replication. D. split DNA molecules. C. perform base-pairing in replication. An accurate description of a silent mutation is: A. a change in the DNA without a change in amino acid. B. insertion or deletion of one or more base-pairs. C. an increase in the number or frequency of mutations. D. a mutation that occurs in the absence of exposure to a mutagen A. a change in the DNA without a change in amino acid. Base-pairs are appropriately described as: A. adenine pairs with guanine. B. guanine pairs with thymine. C. cytosine pairs with adenine. D. uracil pairs with adenine. D. uracil pairs with adenine. The term that describes the sequence for the beginning of a gene is: A. intron. B. exon. C.promoter site. D. anticodon. C.promoter site. What chemical complex is secreted into the cytoplasm and synthesized in the nucleolus? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Cisternae C. Ribosome D. Lysosome C. Ribosome It is true that a chromosome: A. contains 3 different cell types. B. has somatic cells containing 46 chromosomes. C. has gametes that are diploid cells. D. contains diploid cells that are formed through meiosis. B. has somatic cells containing 46 chromosomes. Which of the following terms describes a cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes? A. Aneuploid B. Monsomy C.Trisomy D. Tetraploidy A. Aneuploid It is true that Down syndrome: A. occurs in 1 in 800 live births. B. produces an individual with a normal IQ. C. results in a distinctive facial appearance. D. has a symptomology that includes above average muscle tone. C. results in a distinctive facial appearance. A female patient born with short stature, webbing of the neck, sparse body hair, and narrowing of the aorta is likely exhibiting symptomology of: A. Klinefelter syndrome. B. Down syndrome. C. Turner syndrome. D. fetal alcohol syndrome. C. Turner syndrome. A patient born with the deletion of the short arm of the chromosome 5 is exhibiting a characteristic of: A. Down syndrome. B.Turner syndrome. C. Fragile X syndrome. D. cri-du-chat syndrome. D. cri-du-chat syndrome. It is true that autosomal dominant gene transmission results in: A. the affected parent transmitting the gene to half of his or her children. B. the affected gene being found in males only. C. the skipping of generations for transmission. D.females transmitting the gene more often than males. A. the affected parent transmitting the gene to half of his or her children. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding autosomal recessive trait inheritance? It is true that autosomal recessive trait inheritance results in: A. parents consistently displaying the trait. B. approximately 50% of children displaying the trait. C.both males and females being affected equally. D. the child being heterozygous. C.both males and females being affected equally. Regarding sex-linked inheritance, it is true that: A. most sex-linked traits occur on the Y chromosome. B. X-linked recessive diseases are more common than X-linked dominant diseases. C. males are less affected by X-linked diseases. D.females are always homozygous for X-linked traits. B. X-linked recessive diseases are more common than X-linked dominant diseases. A decrease in workload, use, pressure, or blood supply appropriately describes: A. physiologic atrophy. B. pathologic atrophy. C. hypertrophy. D. hyperplasia. B. pathologic atrophy. The appropriate term for the reversible replacement of one mature cell by another is: A. metaplasia. B. hyperplasia. C. dysplasia. D. atypical hyperplasia. A. metaplasia. The ability to increase intracellular calcium concentrations and affect the nervous and hematopoietic systems is a characteristic of: A. carbon monoxide. B. carbon tetrachloride. C. lead. D. mercury. C. lead. A patient with a collection of blood that is located between the skull and the dura is diagnosed with a condition referred to as a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. contusion. C. subdural hematoma. D. abrasion. A. epidural hematoma. A tear or rip of the skin with a jagged and irregular edge is described as a(n): A. abrasion. B.incision. C.laceration. D. avulsion. C.laceration. Which term describes oxygen failing to reach the blood? A. Suffocation B. Strangulation C. Drowning D. Petechiae A. Suffocation The pigment that is correctly paired with its color is: A. melanin-brown-black. B. hemosiderin-green-black. C. blue nevus-brown-black. D. bilirubin-yellow-brown. A. melanin-brown-black. The appropriate term to identify the nuclear dissolution and destruction of chromatin by action of hydrolytic enzymes is: A. autolysis. B. pyknosis. C. karyorrhexis. D. karyolysis. D. karyolysis. Tuberculous infections are likely to result in a form of necrosis called: A. coagulative. B. liquefactive. C. fat. D. caseous. D. caseous. The term apoptosis is appropriately defined as: A. second messenger system. B. autostimulation. C. programmed cell death. D. pass-it-on signal. C. programmed cell death. A characteristic of a malignant tumor includes that it: A. is encapsulated. B. will not invade local tissues. C. is well differentiated. D. can spread far from the tissue of origin. D. can spread far from the tissue of origin. A cancerous tumor that is very poorly differentiated is referred to as being: A. pleomorphic. B. anaplastic. C. immortal. D. independent. B. anaplastic. Which gene in its normal state negatively regulates cell proliferation? A. Oncogenes B. Tumor suppressor genes C. Proto-oncogenes D. Telomeres B. Tumor suppressor genes A mutation that occurs due to changes in nucleotide base-pairs is described as a: A. point mutation. B. translocation. C. gene amplification. D. pleomorphic. A. point mutation. The name for the process whereby tumor cells generate their own blood supply is referred to as: A. carcinogenesis. B. angiogenesis. C. transforming growth factor. D. thrombospondin. B. angiogenesis. It is TRUE that tobacco smoking is: A. responsible for 10% of all cancer deaths. B. associated with both small and squamous cell carcinomas. C. dangerous primarily to lung tissue. D. responsible for 4000 to 5000 deaths a year worldwide. B. associated with both small and squamous cell carcinomas. It is a TRUE that ultraviolet light: A. induces the tumor necrosis factor. B. damage is not affected by wavelength. C. causes the formation of sarcomas. D. exposure has little effect on ozone depletion. A. induces the tumor necrosis factor. When a patient has been diagnosed with a basal cell carcinoma, it is correct to assume that the: A. lesion is most likely found on the client's trunk. B. patient is likely dark skinned and brown eyed. C. patient has rarely experienced sunburns. D. lesion is most likely found on the arms and legs. D. lesion is most likely found on the arms and legs. It is accurate to assume that a patient diagnosed with melanoma is most likely: A. experiencing a lesion on the back of the legs. B. of Asian descent. C. able to tan well. D. experiencing a high mortality risk factor. A. experiencing a lesion on the back of the legs. Which is a characteristic of cachexia? A. Increased appetite B. Weight gain C. Early satiety D. Least common causes of death C. Early satiety Which BEST describes the term therapeutic index? A. The relative effective dose needed to kill cancer without harming normal cells. B. Direct correlation between dose and actual cell death of tumors. C. Early use of agents prior to local control after surgical resection. D. A type of hormonal therapy. A. The relative effective dose needed to kill cancer without harming normal cells. Childhood cancers generally: A. originate immediately after birth. B. affect the brain. C. originate from the mesodermal layer. D. result in lung cancer. C. originate from the mesodermal layer A TRUE statement regarding a childhood embryonic tumor includes, "The tumor contains: A. mature cells." B. undifferentiated cells." C. carcinoma cells." D. functional cells." B. undifferentiated cells." The most common malignancy in children is: A. leukemia. B. Incorrect in the nervous system. C. in the kidney. D. in soft tissue. A. leukemia. Which of the following viruses has been linked with the development of cancer? A. Measles B. Epstein-Barr C. Mumps D. Influenza B. Epstein-Barr It is believed that the survival rates for childhood cancer survivors have improved primarily because: A. screening for such cancers have become more sensitive. B. less toxic treatments have been developed. C. radiology has become a viable treatment modality. D.the general health of children has improved over the last century. B. less toxic treatments have been developed. Which of the following children should be monitored closely for the symptomology of leukemia? A. 2-year-old diagnosed with Down syndrome B. 18-month-old with a heart valve defect C. 3-year-old with a congenital bone disorder D. 8-month-old with a cleft lip and cleft palate A. 2-year-old diagnosed with Down syndrome The first risk factor to be considered when a child is diagnosed with a carcinoma is: A. a family history of this type of cancer. B. the presence of an autoimmune disorder. C.exposure to an environmental toxin. D. a recent viral illness. C.exposure to an environmental toxin. An example of a physical barrier is: A. antibacterial fatty acids. B. lysozymes in tears. C. epithelial cells. D. ear wax. C. epithelial cells. The complement factor that causes pores to form in the bacterial membrane is: A. C1. B. C3. C. C5b-C9. D. C5. C. C5b-C9. An example of a complement factor that is considered an anaphylatoxin is: A. C3a. B. C5b. C. C7. D. C9. A. C3a. A biochemical substance that attracts leukocytes to the site of inflammation is a(n): A. carboxypeptidase. B. chemotactic factor. C. fibrin. D. opsonin. B. chemotactic factor. It is true that mast cells: A. release histamine that causes vasoconstriction. B. are found only in blood vessels. C. release histamine that causes inflammation. D. are not involved in allergic reactions. C. release histamine that causes inflammation. An acidic, sulfur-containing lipid that produces effects similar to histamine is a(n): A. leukotriene. B. prostaglandin. C. adhesion molecule. D. phagocyte. A. leukotriene. It is true that neutrophils: A. contain no granules. B. are the predominant phagocytes in the early inflammatory site. C. are the largest blood cells. D. enter a wound site after lymphocytes and macrophages. B. are the predominant phagocytes in the early inflammatory site. Biochemical messengers produced by macrophages and lymphocytes in response to a pathogen are called: A. interleukins. B. interferons. C. chemokines. D. tumor necrosis factor. A. interleukins. Which cytokine is secreted by macrophages and mast cells and acts to induce fever? A. Interleukin-1 B. Interleukin-6 C.Interferons D.Tumor necrosis factor-alpha D.Tumor necrosis factor-alpha Regarding the immune response in humans, it is true that: A. before birth, there is no production of lymphocytes. B. B-lymphocytes are produced by the thymus. C. T-lymphocytes are produced by the bone marrow. D. generation of clonal diversity occurs in primary lymphoid organs. D. generation of clonal diversity occurs in primary lymphoid organs. The humoral arm of the immune system is described as when: A. cells undergo differentiation and develop into subpopulations. B. cells attack cancerous cells. C. antibodies are primarily responsible for protection. D. cytotoxic T cells attack and kill targets. C. antibodies are primarily responsible for protection. The precise portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is best described as the: A. paratope. B. epitope. C. self-antigen. D. immunogen. B. epitope. An antigen that is too small to initiate an immune response is a(n): A. carrier. B. allergen. C. hapten. D. self-antigen. C. hapten. It is true that an IgA antibody is: A. predominantly found in blood. B.primarily found in the body's secretions. C. Dimers anchored together by a J chain. D. a gamma heavy chain. C. Dimers anchored together by a J chain. The function of the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte is the: A. activation of macrophages. B. direct stimulation of B-cell maturation. C. process of isotype switching. D. direct killing of foreign and abnormal cells. D. direct killing of foreign and abnormal cells. Inactivation or blocking of the antigen binding to the receptor is best described as: A. agglutination. B. precipitation. C. neutralization. D. attenuation. C. neutralization. It is accurate to describe the humoral response as: A. responding to only a certain number of antigens. B. becoming activated upon recognition of an antigen. C. clonal diversity being generated by the foreignness of the antigen. D. immunoglobulins that are composed of six polypeptide chains. B. becoming activated upon recognition of an antigen. The excessive production of cytokines and Th-cell activation and proliferation is a result of: A. superantigen. B. lymphokine-producing cells. C. regulatory T cells. D. Th1 cells. A. superantigen. It is accurate to state that: A. allergy means deleterious effects of hypersensitivity. B. immunity means an altered immunologic response. C. hypersensitivity means the protective response to an antigen. D. autoimmunity is the normal response to foreign antigens. A. allergy means deleterious effects of hypersensitivity. An accurate description of a type I reaction would be that it: A. is mediated by IgA. B. is generally allergic in nature. C. most often occurs against medications. D. seldom contributes to autoimmune diseases B. is generally allergic in nature. Atopic individuals: A. have a 4% chance that offspring will have allergies, if only one parent has allergies. B. have a 50% chance that offspring will have allergies, if both parents have allergies. C. tend to produce higher quantities of IgE. D. have no genes associated with an atopic state. C. tend to produce higher quantities of IgE. Serum sickness is: A. caused by the formation of immune complexes. B. the deposition of complexes in the blood vessels. C. a result of cytotoxic T cells. D. created by the binding of the antigen to the cell surface. A. caused by the formation of immune complexes. A type IV allergic reaction will: A. be immediate in its action. B. result in an infiltration of B cells. C. create a red, soft-centered lesion. D. be transferred by cells. D. be transferred by cells. A patient who presents with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is likely to: A. be male. B. be Caucasian. C.report symptoms of arthritis. D. experience memory loss. C.report symptoms of arthritis. Which of the following is TRUE regarding organ transplant rejection? A. It is a type IV hypersensitivity. B. Hyperacute rejection is common. C. Acute rejection occurs within months to years. D. Without drugs, it takes years for rejection. A. It is a type IV hypersensitivity. Which is true for a patient who is transfused with a unit of unmatched packed RBCs? The unit: A. now has only three different RBC antigens. B. is type AB blood and will have anti-A and anti-B antibodies. C. is type O blood and will have neither A nor B antigens. D. is type A blood and will have anti-O antibodies. C. is type O blood and will have neither A nor B antigens. A patient who is a type AB+ blood will: A. produce no anti-D antibodies. B. have one genotype, DD. C. have the dd genotype. D. be among 15% of the population. A. produce no anti-D antibodies.