Defense Acquisition University: ACQ- ACQ 1010 All modules Exams.

Defense Acquisition University: ACQ- ACQ 1010 All modules Exams 1-10 Answered and graded 100% score; Latest Fall 2022. Test – ACQ 1010 Module 1 Exam: Systems Acquisition Management Overview 1. Select the Department of Defense’s (DoD’s) decision-support system described as: “this is the process by which the Department of Defense (DoD) identifies, assesses and prioritizes the capabilities the military requires to fulfill its mission and is often referred to as the requirements generation process.” a. Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) b. Risk Assessment and Management System (RAM) c. Defense Acquisition Management System (DAS) d. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) 2. A program estimates that they will require eventual expenditure for Research, Developmental, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) of more than $535 million (FY 2020), or procurement of more than $3,065 billion (FY 2020). What Acquisition Category (ACAT) designation will this pgorgram have? a. Acquisition Category (ACAT)1V b. Acquisition Category (ACAT)1I c. Acquisition Category (ACAT)1 d. Acquisition Category (ACAT)1II 3. Which type of integrated product teams (IPTs) focus on seeking opportunities? a. Working-Level Integrated Project Teams b. Project -Level Integrated Project Teams c. Execution Integrated Project Teams d. Acquisition Integrated Project Teams 4. Which of the following institutions sets resource ceilings and provides Budget Authority for the Department of Defense (DoD)? a. Congress b. The Executive Branch c. Industry 5. A system can be defined as: a. All elements (e. g., hardware, software, logistical support, personnel) needed to assist the Department of Defense (DoD) to conduct its mission of deterring or winning war b. The deployment and fielding processes used by the Department of Defense (DoD) to conduct its mission of deterring or winning war conduct its mission of deterring or winning war d. Hardware devices used to assist the Department of Defense (DoD) to conduct its mission of deterring or winning war 6. What is the most basic reason for the presence of a risk in achieving program goals and objectives? a. known root cause b. probability of a root cause c. scope of a root cause d. future root cause 7. Who provides an independent assessment of the effectiveness and suitability of new weapon systems? a. Director, Cost Assessment and Program Evaluation (D,CAPE) b. Under Secretary of Defense, Comptroller (USD ©) c. Director, Operational Test & Evaluation (D, OT&E) d. Under Secretary of Defense Acquisition & Sustainment (USD (A&s)). 8. The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) is one of three Government regulations that govern acquisition activities and only applies to the Department of Defense (DoD). a. True b. False 9. DoDI 5000.85 specifies the characteristics for acquisition categories. a. True b. False Lesson 2.1 - Capability Requirements and Capabilities-Based Assessment (CBA) JCIDS is one of the three Decision Support Systems. The three decision support systems operate continuously and must interface on a regular basis to enable DoD leadership to make informed decisions regarding the best allocation of scarce resources. The procedures established in the JCIDS support the CJCS and the JROC in identifying, assessing, and prioritizing joint military capability needs. The CJCSI 5123.01, “Charter of the Joint Requirement Oversight Counsel (JROC) and Implementation of the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS)”. This instruction implements the JROC and its subordinate boards to fulfill advisory responsibilities to the Chairman in identifying, assessing, validating, and prioritizing joint military capability requirements, in addition to other matters assigned to it by the President or Secretary of Defense. The JCIDS Manual: this Manual augments CJCSI 5123.01 with detailed guidelines and procedures for operation of JCIDS and interactions with several other departmental processes to facilitate the timely and cost-effective development of capability solutions for the Warfighter. The DoDI 5000.02, Operation of the Adaptive Acquisition Framework (AAF), is the main DoD Instruction that establishes a flexible management framework for translating capability needs and technology opportunities, based on approved capability needs, into stable, affordable, and well-managed acquisition programs that include weapons systems, services, and Automated Information Systems (AIS). According to DOD policy, the first step of the JCIDS process is to conduct a CBA, which analyzes the military’s capability needs and gaps, and recommends both materiel and non-materiel ways to address the gaps The CBA recommends one of two solutions based on the identified capability need. Non-materiel Solution - usually faster and much less expensive than developing a new system. Materiel Solution – A new item (including ships, tanks, self-propelled weapons, aircraft, etc., and related spares, repair parts, and support equipment, but excluding real property, installations, and utilities) developed or purchased to satisfy one or more capability requirements (or needs) and reduce or eliminate one or more capability gaps. The CBA can support implementation of both non-materiel and materiel solutions. 1. Non Material Solution - If the CBA supports a non-materiel solution then a Doctrine, Organization, Training, Materiel, Leadership, Personnel, Facilities and Policy (DOTMLPF-P) Change Recommendation (DCR) is developed to implement the non-materiel solution. 2. Material Solution - If the CBA supports a materiel solution, an Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) is developed. The CBA process produces a validated ICD. The ICD summarizes the results of the CBA’s identification of warfighting capability gaps, and potential solutions to mitigate or resolve those gaps. ICD’s that The ICD then becomes the basis for the Material Development Decision and entry into the Defense Acquisition System (DAS) and the requirement to conduct an analysis of alternatives (AoA) to consider the potential solutions to the capability gaps identified. Which of the following are responsibilities of Requirements Managers in the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) process? (Select three that apply) 1. Estimating cost and obtaining funding 2. Assessing current capabilities 3. Recommending non-materiel and/or materiel approaches 4. Identifying operational performance requirements The primary aim of the Capabilities Based Assessment (CBA) is to assess the validity of materiel solutions to satisfy capability gaps. True False What is developed next if a Capabilities Based Assesment (CBA) recommends a materiel solution? 1. Doctrine, Organization, Training, Materiel, Leadership, Personnel, Facilities and Policy (DOTMLPFP) Change Recommendation 2. Capabilities Development Document 3. Acquisition Strategy 4. Initial Capabilities Document What is developed next if a Capabilities Based Assesment (CBA) recommends a non-materiel solution? 1. Doctrine, Organization, Training, Materiel, Leadership, Personnel, Facilities and Policy (DOTMLPF-P) Change Recommendation 2. Capability Development Document 3. Acquisition Plan 4. Initial Capabilities Document What is the primary objective of the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS)? 1. To ensure technology transfer requirements to the private sector are met 2. To help the Department of Defense (DoD) control costs and ensure National Security objectives are met 3. To ensure that capabilities required by the Warfighter are identified and meet operational performance criteria 4. To provide a mechanism for the Executive Branch and Congress to agree on spending for new defense system acquisitions The next step in the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) process is preparing the documentation. JCIDS uses two primary documents to articulate joint capability needs: 1. Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) 2. Capability Development Document (CDD) Draft CDD Finalized CDD ICD Key Considerations - Documentation for a materiel solution in the JCIDS process begins with the preparation, staffing and approval of the ICD in accordance with the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) Instruction and JCIDS Manual. ICD Materiel Solution - Identify the capability gap or set of capability gaps that exists in a functional area, Make specific recommendations on the type of materiel approach preferred, The ICD Supports the Materiel Development Decision (MDD) Capability Development - Once the initial capability has been documented, materiel approaches are refined and key technologies are being matured, the user builds upon the ICD by documenting a formal program need in the Capability Development Document (CDD) Document Update - As a program nears the end of development for each increment, the user may refine and update the CDD. The CDD may be updated to clarify: Production attributes and quantities specific to a single increment of a program. System specific attributes and applies to the production of a single increment for the program. Subsequent increments in an evolutionary program. Staffed in accordance with the JCIDS process. Which document is updated as needed during the Engineering and Manufacturing Development Phase for use at Milestone C? 1. Analysis of Alternatives 2. Doctrine, Organization, Training, Materiel, Leadership, Personnel, Facilities and Policy (DOTMLPFP) Change Recommendation 3. Capability Development Document 4. Initial Capabilities Document Which document can be prepared by the joint Warfighter, the Joint Staff, or other functional agencies or sponsors? This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :28:49 GMT -05:00 1. Analysis of Alternatives 2. Acquisition Program Baseline 3. Acquisition Strategy 4. Initial Capabilities Document Which Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) document is completed in draft during the Materiel Solution Analysis Phase in time to inform the initial Acquisition Strategy in support of Milestone A? 1. Analysis of Alternatives 2. Capability Development Document 3. Doctrine, Organization, Training, Materiel, Leadership, Personnel, Facilities and Policy (DOTMLPFP) Change Recommendation 4. Initial Capabilities Document The _________________ assesses critical technologies associated with the concepts documented in the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD)? 1. Analysis of Alternatives 2. Capability Development Document 3. Draft Capability Development Document 4. Acquisition Strategy The CDD identifies system-specific performance parameters by identifying two key values, the Threshold and Objective, for each parameter. The two values bound the design of the system yet provide the Program Manager (PM) with flexibility to design the system according to the user's needs. KPPs are Performance attributes of a system considered critical to the development of an effective military capability. KSAs are attributes or characteristics considered essential to achieving a balanced solution/approach to a system, but not critical enough to be designated a KPP. The threshold value of a KSA or KPP is the minimum acceptable value considered cost, schedule, and technology. Performance below the threshold value is not operationally effective or suitable JROC Interest JROC Interest is the validation and approval by the JROC; applies to all potential and designated ACAT I/IA programs and capabilities that have a potentially significant impact on interoperability in allied and coalition operations. JCB Interest Joint Capabilities Board (JCB) Interest is the validation and approval by the JCB; applies to all documents describing ACAT II and below programs that have a potentially significant impact on interoperability (Interagency/Allied/partner nation, coalition, etc. Joint Integration Joint Integration is the validation and approval by the sponsor organization; applies to all documents describing ACAT II and below programs, which require one or more joint endorsements or certifications, but are below the level of JCB Interest. Joint Information Joint Information is the validation and approval by the sponsor organization; applies to all documents describing ACAT II and below programs, which do not need Joint Staff endorsements, and are below the level of JCB Interest. Which of the following statements apply to a Capability Development Document (CDD) threshold? (Select two that apply) 1. It is the minimum acceptable value to the user for a system capability 2. It is the maximum acceptable value to the user for a system capability 3. For any value below the threshold, the utility of the system becomes questionable 4. For any value above the threshold, the utility of the system becomes questionable The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) process is used only for review, validation, and approval of Initial Capabilities Document (ICDs). True False What two key values are identified for each performance parameter in the Capability Development Document (CDD) to bound the design of the system, yet provide the Program Manager with flexibility to design the system according to the user’s needs? 1. Key Performance Parameters (KPP) AND Key System Attributes (KSA) 2. Operational Availability and Suitability 3. Force Protection and Sustainment 4. Thresholds and Objectives If an Initial Capability Document is developed, which of the following solutions does the CapabilitiesBased Assessment (CBA) support? 1. Non-materiel 2. Requirement 3. Materiel 4. Capabilities Assuring that materiel approaches are refined and key technologies are being matured, what JCIDS document is used to build upon the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD)? 1. Enter Statement of Objectives (SOO) 2. Operational Mode Summary/Mission Profile (OMS/MP) 3. Capability Development Document (CDD) 4. Analysis of Alternatives (AoA) Select the document that establishes procedures and policies that assists the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs (CJCS) in identifying, assessing and prioritizing joint military needs. 1. Department of Defense Directive (DoD) Financial Management Regulation 7000 14R (F<R) 2. Manual for the operation of the JCIDS 3. Department of Defense Instruction (DoD) 5000.02 4. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Instruction (CJCSI) 5123.01 What are Requirements Managers responsible for providing? 1. Identifying operational performance requirements 2. Estimating cost and obtaining funding 3. Strategic guidance 4. Feedback from the field What is the primary objective of the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development Systems (JCIDS)? 1. To ensure technology transfer requirements to the private sector are met 2. To help the Department of Defense (DoD) control costs and ensure National Security objectives are met 3. To ensure that capabilities required by the warfighter are identified ad meet operational performance criteria 4. To provide a mechanism for the Executive Branch and congress to agree on spending for new defense acquisitions approaches are refined, and key technologies are being matured what JCIDS documents is used to build upon the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD)? Capabilities Development Document KPPs are Performance attributes of a system considered critical to the development of an effective military capability. Which of the following is not one of four mandatory Key Performance Parameters (KPP)? Energy Sustainment Lethality Force Protection Which document is developed next if the Capabilities-Based Assessment (CBA) recommends a material solution?> 1. Doctrine, Organization, Training Materiel, Leadership Personnel, Facilities & Policies (DOTMLPf – P) Change Recommendation (DCR) 2. Capabilities Development Document (CDD) 3. Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) 4. Draft Capability Document (CDD) What is the purpose of a Capabilities Based Assessment? To analyze the military’s capability needs & gaps and recommend materiel solutions only. To analyze the military’s capability needs & gaps and recommend non-materiel solutions only. To analyze the military’s capability needs & gaps and recommend both materiel & nonmaterial solutions. Select the document that establishes policies and procedures for developing reviewing, validating, and approving the capabilities documents required by the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development Systems (JCIDS). Department of Defense Instruction (DoDI) 5000.02 Manual for the Operation of the JCIDS Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Instruction (CJCSI) 5123.01 Department of Defense Financial Management Regulation 7000 14R (FMR) ACQ 1010 Module 3 Exam The Defense Security Cooperation Agency and a Military Department International Program Office are strong advocates of a Foreign Military Sales (FMS) initiative to sell a U.S. system in full rate production to allied and friendly nations in a region that hasn’t traditionally purchased U.S. equipment in the past. The Program Manager’s Acquisition Strategy must consider new alliances and new partners through International Acquisition and Exportability to support the National Defense Strategy True False When is the Acquisition Program baseline (APB) Prepared? 1. Prepared at program initiation and revised to subsequent milestone reviews, program restructuring, or unrecoverable deviations 2. Prepared at program initiation provides a baseline requirement which cannot be revised 3. Prepared by the Program Executive Office only 4. Approved by the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) for Acquisition Authority (ACAT) I and Information Assurance (IA) programs without coordination with other authorities or departments The purpose of the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction (TMRR) phase is to reduce technology risk through competitive prototyping of critical technologies. True False What is the primary purpose of the Materiel Solution Analysis (MSA) phase? 1. To determine whether a materiel solution is necessary to meet validated capability gaps 2. To implement solutions recommended by an Analysis of Alternatives (AoA) 3. Maturing the technology in order to transition to a program of record 4. To conduct analysis and other activities needed to choose the critical technology(s) and the concept for the product and to begin translating validated capability gaps into system specific requirements What authorizes entry into the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase? 1. Analysis of Alternatives (AoA) 2. Milestone B decision 3. Milestone A decision 4. Milestone C decision The Defense Security Cooperation Agency asks a Military Department to engage their acquisition counterparts in allied and friendly nations regarding the potential benefits of acquiring an upgraded U.S. This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :30:10 GMT -05:00 system that could provide additional coalition capability in the region in order to bolster the U.S. influence in the region. This initiative supports the achievement of which DoD Security Cooperation objective? 1. Promoting Equipment Sales and Financing 2. Defense Contracts & Familiarization 3. Humanitarian Efforts & Civic Assistance 4. Combine Exercises Which of the following Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) documents interfaces with the Major Capability Acquisition Pathway? (select two that apply) a. Program Objective Memorandum (POM) b. Validated On-Line Threat assessment (VOLT) c. Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) d. Capability Development Document (CDD) What is the purpose of the Milestone C decision? a. For major systems, the Department of Defense (DoD) is committed to production of the system and entry into Low-Rate initial Production (LRIP) b. For major systems, the Department of Defense (DoD) is committed to full-rate production of the system and entry into production or procurement c. For non-major systems, the Department of Defense (DoD) is committed to production of prototypes before entry into Full Rate Production (FRP) d. Authorizes manufacture of prototype hardware The Operations and Support Phase begins after the production or deployment decision and is based on which Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) approved document? a. Product Support Strategy (PSS) b. Acquisition Strategy (AS) c. System Disposal Plan (SDP) d. Operations and Support Plan (OASP) e. Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP). What is the purpose of an Acquisition Strategy (AS) a. To conduct analysis and other activities needed to choose the concept for the product and to begin translating validated capability gaps into system specific requirements b. To provide input into the production of the Initial Capability Document (ICD) and Analysis of Alternatives (AoA) c. To determine the ability of systems, units, or forces to provide and accept data, information, materiel, and services from each other d. To guide execution from initiation through re-procurement of systems, subsystems, components, spares, and services beyond the initial production contract award and during post-production support Lesson 3.1 - Defense Acquisition System Overview The primary objective of the Defense Acquisition System is to acquire quality products that satisfy user needs with measurable improvements to mission capability and operational support, in a timely manner, and at a fair and reasonable price. The Defense Acquisition System is not intended to be a rigid, one-size-fits-all process. • PDR: Preliminary Design Review • CDR: Critical Design Review • CDD-V: CDD Validation • LIRP: Low Rate Initial Production • FRP: Full Rate Production • DRFPRD: Development Request for Proposals Release Decision • IOC Initial Operational Capability • FOC: Full Operational Capability Materiel Development Decision This “classic” Defense Acquisition System model is used for programs using the Major Capability Acquisition Pathway of the Adaptive Acquisition Framework. Typically, it is the starting point for most military weapon systems and is used on hardware intensive development programs The structure discussed in this course is a generic description of acquisition phases and decision points that could apply to almost any product life cycle. Milestones - The Major Capability Acquisition pathway uses “milestones” to oversee and manage acquisition programs. At each milestone a program must meet specific statutory and regulatory requirements before the program can proceed to the next phase of the acquisition process. These are the three milestones: 1. Milestone A: initiates Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction 2. Milestone B: initiates Engineering and Manufacturing Development 3. Milestone C: initiates Production and Deployment Phases - In addition to the milestones, the activities of the Major Capability Acquisition pathway are divided into five phases: Materiel Solution Analysis Technology Maturation & Risk Reduction Engineering & Manufacturing Development Production & Deployment Operations & Support Decision Points – The Major Capability Acquisition pathway also consists of these four decision points: Materiel Development Decision (MDD) Capability Development Document Validation (CDD-V) Development Request for Proposal (RFP) Release Decision Full-Rate Production (FRP) Decisiont This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :33:01 GMT -05:00 Powered by TCPDF ()ACQ 1010 Module 4 Resource Allocation Process Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) Process - The first phase of the resource allocation process and is focused on the financial management and resource allocation for current and future DoD acquisition programs. Enactment Process - The second phase of the resource allocation process which begins when the President submits annual budget to congress. then the House and Senate Committees set the overall budget ceilings for the various major Government functions in Budget Resolutions. Budget Resolutions are not laws. This phase ends when the President signs the annual authorization and appropriation bills. Apportionment Process - The third phase of the resource allocation process where the funds are now available to DoD and other federal agencies. Execution Process - The final phase of the resource allocation process. DoD programs and budgets are reviewed and often adjusted on the basis of documentation and other factors. Planning (PPBE) - Review threats, assess capabilities, develop planning guidance and defines military role IAW in National Security Strategy (NSS), and ends with issuance of Defense Planning Guidance (DPG) and Fiscal Guidance Providing the strategic framework for developing Service POMs Programming (PPBE) - Component develop Program Objective Memoranda (POM) in accordance with (IAW) the Defense Planning Guidance (DPG). Budgeting (PPBE) - Scrub budget year, prepare defensible budget and detailed Budget Estimate Submissions (BES) for the budget year of the programs approved during the Programming phase IAW the PDMs/RMDs and culminated with issuance of Program Budget Decisions (PBDs) Resource Management Decisions (RMDs), consideration of Service Secretaries' Major Budget Issues (MBIs) and the submission of the President's Budget. Execution (PPBE) - Measures performance against the plan and assess effectiveness of resource allocations. Planning (Timeline) - A new planning phase begins each year after submission of President's Budget to congress in February. The planning phase will end with the release of the Defense Planning guidance in April/May of the following calendar year. The DPG is the primary product of this phase and it provides the priorities and objectives for the service program request. The planning phase is approximately 15-16 months in duration.National Military Strategy (NMS) - Signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. provides guidance for distributing and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. Defense Planning Guidance (DPG) - Based on the NMS and input from Combatant Commanders (COCOMs), the Chairman of the Join Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) annually provides a Chairman's Program Reccomendation (CPR) to the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF). National Defense Strategy (NDS) - The Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) prepares the National Defense Strategy (NDS), which describes the Department of Defense's strategic role in support of the President's National Security Strategy (NSS). National Security Strategy (NSS) - Defense planning begins with the President's National Security Strategy (NSS). The NSS details the top-level political, economic, and security strategy for the U.S. Programming Phase of PPBE - Turns planning guidance into achievable and affordable programs. Programming examines, prioritizes, and proposes alternatives to balance limited funding while still achieving the goals in the DPG and covers the 5-Year Future Years Defense Program (FYDP). Budgeting Phase of PPBE - During this phase a thorough scrub of the Budget Year, and it ensures that the budget is executable, efficient, and can be effectively defended to Congress. Products of this phase are Budget Estimate Submission, Program Budget Decision or Budget Resource Management Decision, Major Budget Issue, and DoD portion of the President's Budget Budget Estimate Submission (BES) - The BES is submitted to the OSD Comptroller for review. Each service and defense agency specifies fiscal requirements for the next budget cycle to the OSD Comptroller. The BES is submitted to DoD at the same time as the POM. Program Budget Decision (PBD) - The OSD reviews each program's input to the BES. The Comptroller verifies that each program will be able to use the funds requested and the OSD adjust the programs; budget by issuing draft Program Budget Decision also known as Resource Management Decisions. Major Budget Issue (MBI) - After program budget decision have been issued by DoD, Service Secretaries may still appeal decisions directly to the SECDEF. The Service, however, is usually required to provide funding offsets from other programs within the SErvice to "buy back" programs cited as MBI's. DoD Portion of the President's Budget - The DoD Budget is sent to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) which combines it with the rest of the Federal Budget.After the President reviews and approves the budget, it is called the President's Budget (PB). Execution Phase of the PPBE - The PPBE System concludes with this phase. During this phase program are evaluated and measured against pre-established performance metrics, including rates of funding obligations and expenditures. The purpose is to make assessments of current and previous resource allocations to determine if the planned performance goals were met. Concurrent Budget Resolution - Must be passed by both houses of congress in identical form, establishes federal budget ceilings, does not require the President's signature because it is not a law, requires a 60% approval by both houses of Congress if established ceiling are to be exceeded Authorization Bill - An act of Congress that provides permission for a Federal program or activity to begin or continue from year to year. This type of bill sets staffing levels and system quantities, as well as limits on program funds. However, an authorization bill does not grant funding. Before becoming law, the Authorization bill must be signed by the president. House Armed Services Committee (HASC) & Senate Armed Services Committee (SASC) - Responsible for reviewing the President's budget, holding hearings on DoD budgets, drafting Appropriation Bill - Act of Congress that provides Budget Authority (BA) and permits Federal agencies to incur obligations and make payments from the U.S. Treasury. Congressional Timetable - The house budget committee is looking over the Budget Resolution from the end of February through the end of May, while the Senate Budget Committee is looking it over from the beginning of March through the end of May. The HASC reviews the Authorization Bill from early March through the end of June, while the SASC reviews it from Mid-March through the end of July. Meanwhile, the house appropriations committee reviews the Appropriation Bill from the end of April through the end of September. Budget Authority (BA) - Authority provided by law to enter into obligations that will result in immediate or future outlays. It may be classified by the period of availability by the timing of congressional action, or by the manner of determining the amount available. Obligated - Obligation is the binding agreement that will result in outlays immediately or in the future. Flow of funds - Budget authority starts in Congress and flows through the following: Office of Management and Budget, DoD Comptroller, and Component Comptroller. When the BA reaches the Component Comptroller, it breaks apart into two groups. BA can either go to the MAJCOM Comptroller which then leads to the ProgramManagement Office or to the Agency Comptroller and then to the Program Management Office. Misappropriation Act - Title 31, U.S. Code, Section 1301, requires that funds appropriated by Congress be used only for the programs and purposes for which the appropriation is made for example, an agency cannot use RDT&E appropriations to procure major weapons systems (aircraft, missiles, tanks,etc) Anti-Deficiency Act - Title 31, U.S. Code, Sections 1341 and 1517 prohibits an obligation in excess of the appropriated amount or amount permitted by agency regulations, forbid contract or obligation in advance of appropriations, requires agency regulations to monitor and fix responsibility for violations of the act. Bona Fide Need Rule - This rule is a timing rule that requires both timing of the obligation and the bona fide need to be within the fund's period of availability. Execution Phase - The process of "obligating" funds (awarding contracts) and "expending" funds (writing checks to pay bills). At any given time during the Calendar Year (CY), activities involving different Fiscal Year (FY) budgets will overlap. While one FY's budget is being executed, the next FY is being enacted, and the following FY is undergoing a PPBE review. Planning is essentially a continuous process. Execution (Budget Review) - Defending the program before different groups on an ongoing basis, achieving a balanced and yet sufficient budget, and meeting national security objectives while operating within fiscally constrained environment. Enactment Phase - Congress reviews the President's budget, conducts hearings, and passes legislation Apportionment Phase - Office of Management and Budget (OMB) distributes the Budget Authority (BA) to DoD and other federal agencies Execution Phase (summary) - Appropriated funds are spent on defense programsACQ 1010 Module 5 Exam What cost estimating technique would be indicated for the following situation? The program is early in the Engineering and Manufacturing development phase. An estimate is needed quickly to support a “what-if” discussion. A moderate degree of subjectivity can be accommodated. A good database exists with information on many similar systems and their performance characteristics. a. Engineering b. Parametric c. Analogy d. Actual Costs Approval for reprogramming must always involve Congress. a. True b. False Which of the following appropriations categories fund the Research and Development efforts performed by both contractors and government agencies? a. Operations and Maintenance b. Procurement c. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation d. MILPERS Who can approve the realignment of funds between activities that are below the level of control for that appropriation category and that does not require a reprogramming action? a. DoD Comptroller b. Program Manager c. Contractor d. Congress Select the term that best fits the following definition: “A charge against available funds, resulting from a voucher, claim, or other document approved by a competent authority.” a. Commitment b. Outlay c. Expenditure d. Obligation a. Acquire funding for a system throughout its lifespan b. Allow audits of system costs c. Provide funding for contract actions d. Determine the effectiveness of the system This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :32:29 GMT -05:00 Powered by TCPDF ()ACQ 1010 Module 6 Exam Which of the following is NOT a primary method of contracting? a. Unilateral contract action b. Sealed Bidding c. Contract by Negotiation The Termination Contracting Officer (TCO) is responsible for: a. Negotiating any settlement with the contractor b. Awarding Certificates of Appointment c. Performing all administrative functions d. Signing the contract U.S. Federal Government agencies are required to arrange full and open competition through the use of competitive procedures in their procurement activities unless otherwise authorized by law. a. True b. False Which of the following describes an Indefinite-Quantity contract? a. Is used when negotiating a definitive contract is not possible in sufficient time to meet the requirements b. Provides for delivery of a definite quantity of supplies or services for a fixed period c. Provides for acquiring supplies and services on the basis of direct labor hours and materials at cost d. Provides an indefinite quantity, within stated limits, of supplies or services to be furnished during a fixed period, within stated limits Which of the following is a true statement regarding a contract? a. Requires six essential elements to be binding b. Legally binds parties to terms and conditions that cannot change c. Is not required for purchases less than $100,000 d. Defines the responsibilities of the contractor while leaving the Government’s responsibility flexible What is the Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) responsible for providing? a. Advisory services in connection with close out of contracts and subcontracts b. Consistent treatment of contractors in the administration of Government contracts This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :33:32 GMT -05:00 c. Worldwide contract administrative services in support of DoD components and other designated Federal and international organizations 9+*Timely payments What is the first step in the Solicitation Phase? a. Determine a list of offerors who should receive the Request for Proposal (RFP) b. Notify industry that a contract need exists and identify parameters of that need c. Meet with potential offerors to refine your statement of work d. Contact firms to determine their level of interest in the upcoming Request for Proposal (RFP) RETAKE Which of the following describes an Indefinite-Quantity contract? a. Provides an indefinite quantity, within stated limits, of supplies or services to be furnished during a fixed period, within stated limits b. Is used when negotiating a definitive contract is not possible in sufficient time to meet the requirements c. Provides for delivery of a definite quantity of supplies or services for a fixed period d. Provides for acquiring supplies and services on the basis of direct labor hours and materials at cost What type of modification is used to make an administrative change to a contract that does not affect the substantive rights of the contracting parties? a. Constructive change b. Optional c. Bilateral d. Unilateral Which of the following terms must an offer include? a. Contractor’s identification information b. Negotiable terms and conditions c. Written statement of pending litigation d. Price, quantity, quality, and delivery requirements Who oversees the source selection process and selects the source whose proposal is the best value? This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :33:32 GMT -05:00 a. Contracting Officer (KO) b. Source Selection Authority (SSA) c. Source Selection Advisory Council (SSAC) d. Source Selection Evaluation Board (SSEB) A Contract is a legal instrument that defines the rights and responsibilities of: a. The purchaser (government/acceptance) b. Each party c. The supplier (contractor/offeror) The Federal Acquisition Regulation, 42,302(a), lists functions normally performed by this type of contracting officer. a. Termination Contracting Officer (TCO) b. Administrative Contracting Officer (ACO) c. Contracting Officers Representative (COR) d. Procuring Contracting Officer (PCO) Which of the following documents would typically be found in a requirements package? a. Life Cycle Sustainment Plan b. Contract Data Requirements c. Statement of Work (SOW) d. Specifications Identify the post-award phase of contracting (e.g., contract administration and deliver contract and closeout).-8.5,slide 209What type of modification is used to make an administrative change to a contract that does not affect the substantive rights of the contracting parties? a. Unilateral b. Constructive change c. Optional d. Bilateral This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :33:32 GMT -05:00 This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :33:32 GMT -05:00 Powered by TCPDF ()ACQ 1010 Module 7 Exam What activity is typically accomplished by the contractor in the Systems Engineering Process as it relates to defining the design? a. Determine performance thresholds b. Translate operational need into a performance specification c. Translate the system performance specifications into technical design specifications d. Conduct operational test to verify system performance The right side of the Systems Engineering triangle model represents a. Decomposition b. Verification c. Realization d. Transition Which document contains a format for the Systems Engineering Plan (SEP)? a. Systems Engineering Plan (SEP) Guidebook b. MIL-HDBK-881D c. Systems Engineering Plan (sep) Outline d. MIL-C-44072C Which technical process answers the question of “Did you build the system correctly?” a. Integration b. Production c. Verification d. Architecture Design A specification that specifies the function, performance, and interfaces associated with a product but not the explicit design and materials needed produce a product is called what? a. Deployment specification b. Design specification c. Performance specification d. Operations specification Which Systems Engineering supporting discipline has the goal to ensure that support considerations are an integral part of the system’s design requirements so that the system can be cost-effectively supported throughout its life cycle:? This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :33:56 GMT -05:00 a. Software Engineering b. Science and Technology c. Production, Quality, and Manufacturing Management d. Test and Evaluation e. Life Cycle Logistics In which phase is the effort made to develop and demonstrate manufacturing processes? a. Materiel Solution Analysis b. Engineering and Manufacturing Development c. Operations and Support d. Technology Development Which of the following technical management processes is defined as “measuring technical progress and the effectiveness of plans and requirements”? a. Architecture Design b. Requirements Analysis c. Technical Planning d. Technical Assessment This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :33:56 GMT -05:00 Powered by TCPDF ()Paula Smith ACQ 1010 MODULE 8 EXAM: TEST AND EVALUATION OVERVIEW The Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP) must be developed prior to which of the following? Answer: Milestone A and updated before each subsequent review Test and Evaluation (T&E) is used to identify technical risk, verify performance, and validate system utility throughout the defense system acquisition life cycle. Answer: True Which type of test supports the systems engineering process by measuring the technical performance against the design specifications? Answer: Developmental Test and Evaluation Which of the following best describes Test and Evaluation (T&E) Answer: Ensures that the system meets the capability needs. Select the type of Operational Test and Evaluation that is conducted after the Full-Rate Production Decision: Answer: Follow-On Operational Test and Evaluation This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :35:31 GMT -05:00 Powered by TCPDF ()1. What is the focus of sustainment operations during the operation and support phase? Executing the sustainment program and on making adjustments based on effectiveness and operating conditions using systems engineering principles. 2. Which of the following integrated product support (IPS) element objectives is “to plan and manage cost and performance across the product support, value chain, from design through disposal”? Product Support Management 3. Which of the following are strategies of life cycle sustainment? Comprehensive and early planning, development and implantation 4. Which of the following statements are true about Performance Based Logistics (PBL) arrangements: They focus on combining best practices of both government and industry, they are tied to warfighter requirements and outcomes and they integrate various product support activities of the supply chain with appropriate incentives and metrics. 5. Which of the following statements best describes life cycle logistics? Logistics is an inherent part of the system’s design, development, testing and production 6. Traditional/transactional based logistics focuses on reliability, availability, maintainability and supportability: False 7. Which of the following metrics is a top-level outcome-based metric based on the joint capabilities integration and development system (JCIDS)? Availability 8. Which of the following best describes performance based logistics contracts? Effective PBL contracts are typically multi-year 9. What is the name of the document that describes how the sustainment strategy will be implemented? Product Support Strategy 10. One way to support the departments goal of incentivizing and ultimately improving, productivity and affordability of the department’s weapon systems is to increase the application of performance based logistics (PBL) solutions for the departments systems, subsystems and components: True 11. Which of the following is NOT a primary technique using in product support analysis (PSA)? Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) 12. The product support business model seeks to balance weapon systems availability with the most affordable and predictable total ownership cost: True This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :36:48 GMT -05:00 correction and then to the onset of a second failure (which may be of a different nature than the first failure) within the same component or subassembly within a given population of equipment. True This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :36:48 GMT -05:00 Powered by TCPDF ()ACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs) 1. Which of the following are considered primary objectives of Systems Acquisition Management? (Select three that apply) a. Satisfy the needs of operational users b. Provide measurable improvements in functional capabilities c. Acquire products at the lowest price d. Acquire products in a timely manner at a fair and reasonable cost 2. Which of the following best describes a system? a. Hardware b. Hardware and software c. Hardware, software, and logistics support d. Hardware, software, logistics support, and personnel 3. Which of the following is one of the principal mechanisms by which Congress modifies the defense acquisition structure? a. Clinger-Cohen Act b. DoD Procurement Reform Act c. Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) d. National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) 4. Which of the following establishes the objective of delivering effective, suitable, survivable, sustainable, and affordable solutions to the end user in a timely manner? a. DoDD 5000.01 -The Defense Acquisition Sytsem b. DoDI 5000.02 - Operation of the Adaptive Acquisition Framework c. Defense Acquisition Guidebook d. (DAG)Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 5. The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR): a. Applies only to DoD b. Exempts Program Managers of critical projects from considering them during execution of their programs c. Is the primary regulation for all Federal agencies for the acquisition of supplies and services d. Is articulated in DoDD 5000.01ACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs) 1. Representing constituent interests, setting resource ceilings, and balancing national security and social needs are characteristics of which institution? a. Executive b. Branch c. Congress d. Defense industry 2. Formulating national security policy, negotiating with Congress, and maintaining a balanced force structure are characteristics of which institution? a. Executive Branch b. Congress c. Defense industry 3. Considering stockholders' interests, responding to solicitations, and technological achievement are characteristics of which institution? a. Executive Branch b. Congress c. Defense industry 4. Which of the following are constraints that impact a program's goals and objectives? (Select three that apply) a. Cost b. Personnel c. Schedule d. Performance 5. The use of new material or processes is an example of what kind of risk? a. Cost b. Performance c. Schedule d. Accepting risk 6. Which of the following are components of risk? (Select three that apply) a. Future root cause b. Probability c. Schedule performance d. ConsequenceACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs) 1. Which OSD position ensures the alignment of DoD plans with national security objectives? a. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Comptroller b. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Policy c. Director, Cost Assessment and Program Evaluation d. Director, Operational Test and Evaluation 2. Which OSD position provides independent assessment of the operational effectiveness and suitability of new weapon systems? a. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Comptroller b. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Policy c. Director, Cost Assessment and Program Evaluation d. Director, Operational Test and Evaluation 3. Which OSD position controls the budget and the release of funds? a. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Comptroller b. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Policy c. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) for Acquisition and Sustainment d. Director, Operational Test and Evaluation 4. Which OSD position is the principal staff assistant and advisor to the Secretary and Deputy Secretary of Defense for all matters relating to the DoD acquisition system? a. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Comptroller b. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Policy c. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) for Acquisition and Sustainment d. Director, Operational Test and Evaluation 5. Which key player is the designated individual with overall responsibility for a program? a. Component Acquisition Executive (CAE) b. Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE) c. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) d. Program Manager (PM) 6. Which key player is the senior official in each DoD Component responsible for all acquisition functions within that Component? a. Component Acquisition Executive (CAE) b. Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE) c. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) d. Program Manager (PM)ACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs) 7. The PM is accountable for credible cost, schedule, and performance reporting to the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA). True False 1. What are Defense system acquisition program teams referred to as? a. Intermixed Product Teams b. Included Product Teams c. Incorporated Product Teams d. Integrated Product Teams 2. Successful Integrated Product Teams (IPTs) depend on effective leadership and on each member being an effective team player. Which of the following principles are typically found in IPTs? (Select three that apply) a. Reasoned disagreement b. Qualified team members c. Proactive participation d. Closed door discussions 3. Which types of Integrated Product Teams (IPTs) are responsible for overseeing and reviewing strategic guidance, program assessment, and issue resolution? a. Working Level IPTs (WIPTs) b.Overarching IPTs (OIPTs) c.Program-Level IPTs d.Representative IPTs (RIPTs 4. What is a defining characteristic of an Integrated Product Team (IPT)? a. It is a multidisciplinary group of people who are collectively responsible for delivering a defined product or process. b. It does not require an effective leader, but it does depend on each member being a team player c. It is an integral part of the defense acquisition oversight and review process, but it is not required by DoDD 5000.01 d. It solves problems effectively because it is not reliant upon "up-the-line" communicationACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs) 1. Which Decision Support System is a calendar-driven process and offers the basis for informed affordability assessment? a. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) b. Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System (PPBE) c. Defense Acquisition System d. Capability Development Document (CDD) Validation 2. Requirements identified through this Decision Support System can be addressed through changes in DOTMLPF-P. a. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) b. Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System (PPBE) c. Defense Acquisition System d. CDD Validation 3. Which Decision Support System uses milestones to oversee and manage acquisition programs? a. JCIDS b. PPBE c. Defense Acquisition System d. Major Capability Acquisition Pathway 4. Which of the following DoD Decision Support Systems is considered DoD's primary resource allocation process? a. Defense Acquisition System b. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System c. Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System Which of the following are considered primary objectives of Systems Acquisition Management? (Select three that apply) 1. Satisfy the needs of operational users 2. Provide measurable improvements in functional capabilities 3. Acquire products at the lowest price 4. Acquire products in a timely manner at a fair and reasonable cost Which of the following best describes a system? 1. Hardware 2. Hardware and software 3. Hardware, software, and logistics support 4. Hardware, software, logistics support, and personnel Which of the following is one of the principal mechanisms by which Congress modifies the defense acquisition structure?ACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs) 1. Clinger-Cohen Act 2. DoD Procurement Reform Act 3. Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 4. National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) Which of the following establishes the objective of delivering effective, suitable, survivable, sustainable, and affordable solutions to the end user in a timely manner? 1. DoDD 5000.01 -The Defense Acquisition Sytsem 2. DoDI 5000.02 - Operation of the Adaptive Acquisition Framework 3. Defense Acquisition Guidebook (DAG) 4. Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR): 1. Applies only to DoD 2. Exempts Program Managers of critical projects from considering them during execution of their programs 3. Is the primary regulation for all Federal agencies for the acquisition of supplies and services 4. Is articulated in DoDD 5000.01 Representing constituent interests, setting resource ceilings, and balancing national security and social needs are characteristics of which institution? 1. Executive Branch 2. Congress 3. Defense industry Formulating national security policy, negotiating with Congress, and maintaining a balanced force structure are characteristics of which institution? 1. Executive Branch 2. Congress 3. Defense industry Considering stockholders' interests, responding to solicitations, and technological achievement are characteristics of which institution? 1. Executive Branch 2. Congress 3. Defense industryACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs) Which OSD position ensures the alignment of DoD plans with national security objectives? 1. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Comptroller 2. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Policy 3. Director, Cost Assessment and Program Evaluation 4. Director, Operational Test and Evaluation Which OSD position provides independent assessment of the operational effectiveness and suitability of new weapon systems? 1. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Comptroller 2. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Policy 3. Director, Cost Assessment and Program Evaluation 4. Director, Operational Test and Evaluation Which OSD position controls the budget and the release of funds? 1. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Comptroller 2. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Policy 3. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) for Acquisition and Sustainment 4. Director, Operational Test and Evaluation Which OSD position is the principal staff assistant and advisor to the Secretary and Deputy Secretary of Defense for all matters relating to the DoD acquisition system? 1. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Comptroller 2. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Policy 3. Under Secretary of Defense (USD) for Acquisition and Sustainment 4. Director, Operational Test and Evaluation Which key player is the designated individual with overall responsibility for a program? 1. Component Acquisition Executive (CAE) 2. Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE) 3. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) 4. Program Manager (PM) Which key player is the senior official in each DoD Component responsible for all acquisition functions within that Component? 1. Component Acquisition Executive (CAE) 2. Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE) 3. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) 4. Program Manager (PM)ACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs) The PM is accountable for credible cost, schedule, and performance reporting to the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA). True False 1. Which acquisition category (ACAT) does not apply to Air Force programs? a. ACAT I b. ACAT II c. ACAT III d. ACAT IV 2. Which acquisition category (ACAT) has estimated procurement of more than $920 million but less than $3.065 billion in FY 2020 constant dollars? a. ACAT I b. ACAT II c. ACAT III d. ACAT IV Successful Integrated Product Teams (IPTs) depend on effective leadership and on each member being an effective team player. Which of the following principles are typically found in IPTs? (Select three that apply) 1. Reasoned disagreement 2. Qualified team members 3. Proactive participation 4. Closed door discussions Which types of Integrated Product Teams (IPTs) are responsible for overseeing and reviewing strategic guidance, program assessment, and issue resolution? 1. Working Level IPTs (WIPTs) 2. Overarching IPTs (OIPTs) 3. Program-Level IPTs 4. Representative IPTs (RIPTs)ACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs) What is a defining characteristic of an Integrated Product Team (IPT)? 1. It is a multidisciplinary group of people who are collectively responsible for delivering a defined product or process. 2. It does not require an effective leader, but it does depend on each member being a team player 3. It is an integral part of the defense acquisition oversight and review process, but it is not required by DoDD 5000.01 4. It solves problems effectively because it is not reliant upon "up-the-line" communication Which Decision Support System is a calendar-driven process and offers the basis for informed affordability assessment? 1. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) 2. Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System (PPBE) 3. Defense Acquisition System 4. Capability Development Document (CDD) Validation Requirements identified through this Decision Support System can be addressed through changes in DOTMLPF-P. 1. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) 2. Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System (PPBE) 3. Defense Acquisition System 4. CDD Validation Which Decision Support System uses milestones to oversee and manage acquisition programs? 1. JCIDS 2. PPBE 3. Defense Acquisition System 4. Major Capability Acquisition Pathway Which of the following DoD Decision Support Systems is considered DoD's primary resource allocation process? 1. Defense Acquisition System 2. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System 3. Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution SystemACQ1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management Lesson 1.4 - Acquisition Categories (ACATs)ACQ 1010 Module 10 Exam Prevention of damage to, protection of, and restoration of computers, electronic communications systems, electronic communications services, wire communication, and electronic communication refers to: _____ . a. Cyber assessment b. Security Posture c. Cyber analysis d. Cybersecurity Which of the following organizations provides centralized management of DoD CI activities? a. Director, National Security Agency/Chief, Central Security Service (DIRNSA/CCSS) b. Director, Defense Threat Reduction Agency (DTRA) c. Director, Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) d. Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (OUSD ii)) The overall efforts of the Intelligence Community (IC) are administered by the Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI), which is led by the Director of National Intelligence (DNI). a. True b. False _______________ Guards against improper information modification or destruction. a. Integrity b. Nonrepudiation c. Authentication d. Availability CIPs are ____________ a. Counterintelligence information Packages b. Critical Intelligence Parameters c. Cyber Information Protocols d. Common Information Pictures Counterintelligence (CI) organizations need information that describes the CPI and its projected use to determine the foreign collection threat to an acquisition program and subsequently the _________. a. Life Cycle Sustainment Plan & Strategy b. Program acquisition strategy c. Test and evaluation plan d. Program Procurement Plan