United States Military Academy NAVY PPME-PPME (ENL) BLOCK 4 HOW THE NAVY THINKS ABOUT WAR

United States Military Academy NAVY PPME-PPME (ENL) BLOCK 4 HOW THE NAVY THINKS ABOUT WARThe American Way of War Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American War was seen as a victory by militia (“volunteer”) forces and proof that the United States didn’t need to maintain a large standing army. True Congress was unwilling to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing army during the latter part of the 19th century because ______________. It did not see any threat to the existence of the nation During the American Revolution, the American land forces found success against the British through ______________. A combination of conventional and unconventional actions fought by the continental army, the militia and irregular forces During the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________. was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a legitimate nation Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________. quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics. False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War. In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving West, a large standing army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War. False One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was ____________________. the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation Public opposition to fighting the Philippine Insurrection was largely based on ______________. The idea that the acquisition of colonies was incompatible with American values The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. This led to the “American View” that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies. False The Second Seminole War _______________. became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victory The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War? All of the answers are correct. Today’s Reserve Component and National Guard are direct descendents of the militias established by the early European colonists true Which post World War II operation(s) evidenced flaws in America’s ability to fight small, low intensity conflicts The Iranian hostage rescue attempt and operation URGENT FURY in Grenada The Naval Way of War “Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform” is the notto-centralize philosophy of the U.S. ________________________. Navy According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea. False All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest peril during non-wartime activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is ____________________. Fire An organization’s culture ____________________. All of the answers are correct. By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will ____________________. have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of communication During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of the ship and operating environment? The attitudes of Naval officers toward their job Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available. True In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree? GPS In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions, threats, tactics, and technologies, it’s important to know ___________________. The U.S. Navy’s organizational culture Navigation is ____________________. an art of approximation NPME and JPME are related to formal education for the younger generation of officers true One of the things that initiated the NPME program was an interest ______________. An interest in reducing the degree of separation across individual officer communities Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________. All of the answers are correct The contemporary maritime strategy of the U.S. Navy ______________. All the answers are correct The Navy’s intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to limit the enemy’s freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for maneuver The Navy’s organizational culture comes from ____________________. All of the answers are correct. U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and, at this time, they ____________________. have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support operations What is the best example of Independence of Action All the answers are correct Theory of War Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on ____________________. the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war? It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action An enemy’s critical vulnerability ____________________. is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the enemy’s ability to resist us Carrier Strike Group and Expeditionary Strike Group commanders generally operate at what level of war? Tactical Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________. concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness In current joint and Navy doctrine, centers of gravity ______________. Are those characteristics, capabilities, or sources of power from which a military force derives its freedom of action, physical strength, or will to fight The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________. by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps each commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________. in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives The enemy’s center of gravity ____________________. can change particularly at the operational and tactical level The geographic areas of responsibility for geographic Combatant Commanders are established at what level(s Strategic The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________. may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability The principles of war ______________. Are a summary of the characteristics of successful military operations The principles of war include ______________. Surprise, maneuver, mass, economy of force, simplic The three components of military art are ____________________. strategy, tactics, and operational art Which of the following is correct? The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine. Doctrine All doctrinal publications are reviewed ______________. Continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has been ten years since the last revision Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs. True Commanders of U.S. forces operating as part of a multinational command should follow ______________. Multinational doctrine/procedures which have been ratified by the US Joint doctrine and TTPs in joint publications are ______________. Authoritative and approved by the Chairman, JCS Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it must be followed without exception false Joint doctrine is based on ____________________. current war plans Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine true Naval Doctrine Publications are approved by ______________. CNO and Commandant, USMC Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or multinational force. True Naval Warfare Publications are approved by ______________. Commander, NWDC Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive. False The joint doctrine development process has four steps ______________. Initiation, development, approval, maintenance The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________. all publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through ____________________. NWDC SIPRNET site The type of doctrine publication that covers mission areas, enabling functions, and the organization and support of forces for sustained operations, is called ______________. NWPs The UNTL is ______________. A comprehensive/hierarchical listing of Navy tasks at all levels of war Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine Detailed threat profiles Which of the following is characteristic of NTRPs They are not necessarily related to NWPs Which of the following is NOT characteristic of NTTPs They are not related to NWPs Command and Control C² enables the Commander to ___________________ . All of the answers are correct Combatant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through ___________________ . All of the answers are correct Command and control is ______________. A system and a process Control is the ___________________ . commander’s means of guiding a military operation Feedback is most important to control because ___________________ . It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing circumstances. Naval commanders exercise TACON over ___________________ . all of the answers are correct OPCON and TACON: All of the answers are correct OPCON would be delegated to ___________________ . JTF commanders Operational control or OPCON includes organizing commands and which of the following functions All the answers are correct The C² organization is defined to include ___________________ . All of the answers are correct The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as ______________. Its doctrine for tactical command and control The principal element of command and control is command The process of command control includes which of the following all the answers are correct U.S. forces, including U.S. naval forces are ______________. May be placed under OPCON of a UN commander based upon a Security Council resolution Which of the following are considered command and control support? The people, facilities and equipment that provide information to commanders. Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the functioning of the human nervous system? All of the answers are correct Which of the following is not an example of OPCON Detailed direction in the application of force Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON? Organization, logistics and training Which of the following is the definition of Command and Control in Joint Doctrine The exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission Why is C² considered the single most important activity in war Without it, military forces can lose organization and direction and fail to achieve their mission Joint Force Maritime Component Commander According to the concept, the JFMCC _______________________ . All of the answers are correct During the Cold War the Navy assumed that when it fought at sea against the Soviet navy, it would be ______________. Fighting virtually independently of other US and allied forces Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given _____________________ . both OPCON and TACON The functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC (and the Joint Forces Air Component Commander and the Joint Forces Land Component Commander) serves which of the following purposes Better integrate military assets during operations The functional component commander is usually the ______________. Service commander with the preponderance of forces assigned to the functional component The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to: Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commander’s campaign plan. The JFMCC concept is _______________________ . still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions have been finalized The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders ______________. The JFLCC and JFACC The JFMCC is ordinarily composed of ______________. Service or component staff, augmented by service staff The JFMCC’s subordinate commanders include: Both CSG and ESG commanders. The Joint Force Commander ______________. May retain control of any function The Joint Force Commander has ______________. Wide authority to organize the Joint Task Force The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander ___________________. Will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies upon the Navy service component commander The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to: All of the answers are correct The MARSUPREQ is designed to ______________. Enable the commanders of Carrier Strike Groups, Expeditionary Strike Groups and other functional components to request JFMCC assets The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to ______________. Request specific support to execute assigned missions Under the JFMCC concept, logistics, personnel support, and service-specific training would ______________. Remain the responsibility of the service component commander What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations? Sea control Which of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC? All of the answers are correct Who ordinarily will have functional responsibility for the performance of a JTF's maritime missions? The JFMCC Composite Warfare Commander Concept Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because: In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage. After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission: Shifted in orientation to the littorals. Decentralization and command by negation are ______________. Design keys of CWC because they reduce complexity and information overload Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation ______________. Assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical TACON ______________. May be retained by the OTC The chain of command under the CWC concept ______________. Must be established by the OTC in an OPGEN The common operating picture, or COP, includes ______________. All of the answers are correct The CWC concept addresses defense against: All of the answers are correct The CWC is intended to enable the CVBG commander to ______________. Manage information overload The CWC would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because ___________________ . that is where the needed C2 assets will be The littorals are ______________. Areas near the shore and inland from the shore The OTC will designate ______________. All the answers are correct The OTC's delegation to the CWC is ______________. Determined by the OTC based on each individual situation The principal offensive operations envisioned under the CWC concept are ______________. Deep precision strikes on land targets Under CWC concept, the OTC's primary focus should be on ______________. Fighting his or her ship Under the CWC concept control of different weapon systems on a single ship ______________. May be delegated to different warfare commanders Under the CWC concept warfare commanders are given call signs that ______________. All the answers are correct What is the cornerstone tenet of the CWC concept? Command by negation CWC Roles and Responsibilities CWC’s relationship to OTC is ______________. Always subordinate, even if OTC and CWC are filled by the same commander Decentralized command is an effective approach because? (2x) It helps to prevent the CWC from being overwhelmed by information overload; It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to achieve mission objectives. If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be ______________________ . All of the answers are correct Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ . immediately subordinate to the CWC Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to: Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders. Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by ______________. Either the PWC or the CWC TACON over any single asset can be ___________________ . held by only one commander and any given time The Air Defense Warfare Commander is ordinarily assigned to ______________. the most capable and experienced air defense ship The CWC will have _____________________ . TACON The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include ___________________ . All of the answers are correct The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on ______________. A carrier What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar? The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the plan and their roles in it. What is the role of preplanning of responses in the CWC concept? (not this: All of the answers are correct) Which of the following are NOT examples of Functional Warfare Commanders Secure telecommunications group commander Which of the following are not part of the CWC structure? JTF commanders Which of the following functions are NOT the responsibility of the CWC Establishing mission objectives Which of the following functions are the responsibility of CWC Developing plans in support of assigned missions Which of the following is NOT a Principal Warfare Commander Marine expeditionary unit commander Who retains overall responsibility for mission accomplishment OTC JFMCC/CWC Challenges A downside of CWC’s dependency on communications is ______________. all of the answers are correct According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of ___________________. 20NM According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that the ___________________. CWC creates broad war fighting specialists Important challenges for CWC include ___________________. All of the answers are correct Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to ___________________. developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite communications The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution. False The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means ___________________. All of the answers are correct What are the challenges to the CWC concept? All of the answers are correct What mitigates the concern that the CWC concept is too communications intensive Improved C4 architecture Strike Warfare Introduction Carrier Strike Groups are ______________. (Select all that apply (3x) employed in a variety of sea control roles ; formed and disestablished as necessary so each may differ ; comprised of similar types of ships employing a carrier air wing and tomahawk land attack missiles Which of the following describes Sea Strike All of the above describe Sea Strike Origins and Development Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units. False Difficulties encountered by the Navy in integrating into the joint air operations planned and directed by the Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) during Operation DESERT STORM were due to ______________. (2x) the lack of compatible communications equipment ; the Navy's long time practice of decentralized command of air power During Operation Desert Storm, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi infrastructure. False During Operation DESERT STORM, Navy and Marine Corps aircraft ______________. Flew approximately one third of the total sorties flown by US aircraft - an amount in direct proportion to their numbers in the US air inventory During Operation DESERT STORM, the Navy's capability to conduct amphibious operations ______________. Caused the Iraqis to divert a portion of its forces to defend Kuwait against amphibious attack which contributed to its forces being enveloped by coalition forces How do the Navy’s two principal missions influence events on land? Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while power projection ashore directly influences those events. In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval air commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander. False Operation DESERT STORM introduced ___________________ to the Navy mission of projecting power ashore. ship launched long range non-nuclear guided missiles Strike operations are a component of which navy mission? Projecting power ashore Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with ordnance. Thus, aircraft such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike. False Strike warfare is only applicable to high intensity conflict situations. false Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resulted in the new mission of close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft. false Submarines have no role in strike warfare. false The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a result nearly no “dumb” bombs were utilized. False The Air Tasking Order (ATO) is the Air Force equivalent of the Navy Air Tasking Order (NATO false The changes in strike warfare organization and planning resulting from lessons learned in the 1990-1 Gulf War were tested ______________. in the series of operations in the Balkans during the late 1900s The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made possible by the introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile. False The two principal missions of the United States Navy are Sea Control and Projection of Power Ashore Which of the following is not a principal mechanism by which the Navy executes strike warfare Amphibious assault While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such operations for an extended period. False Carrier Strike Groups All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed. False Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by ______________. All the answers are correct Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navy’s strike warfare mission, the Carrier Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability. False Because they have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided missile frigates are the primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group. False Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to their inability to conduct in-flight refueling. False Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) are employed ______________. All the answers are correct Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) consist solely of surface ships. Submarines may provide support to the CSG, but are not under the command of the CSG commander. false Carrier Strike Groups are dependant on Logistical Supply Squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of ammunition, fuel and supplies as they do not have logistical support ships organic to them. false Carrier Strike Groups are employed _____________. All of the answers are correct Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an anti-ship guided missile. false Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to, and upon arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be provided by ______________. Carrier strike group The “Summer Pulse 04” exercise ______________. Utilized seven Carrier Strike Groups deployed around the world The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested. False The Fleet Response Plan’s goal is to ______________. sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three months of an emergency order The Flexible Deployment Concept ________________. (2x) provides more options to national leaders when contemplating how to response to specific global needs; allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments of varied duration in support of specific national priorities The Navy’s Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrier-based aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decades. False The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class. False Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile? all of the answers are correct The Aircraft Carrier ___________________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable power. Human organization Effective strike operations are coordinated through a negotiation process in which officers: Maximize demands on other units for operational and logistics support Resist demands which could compromise the safety or performance of their units Flight deck danger can be eliminated by: None of the answers are correct Iraqi Freedom strike operations illustrate the CV/CVN’s unique capability to conduct air operations in: Sandstorms Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following? Permit 24 hour strike warfare Naval Air Strike Warfare is executed by Aircraft Carrier Wing Successful strike warfare depends upon ? All of the answers are correct The Carrier Air Department is responsible for Flight deck control Trade-offs between naval effectiveness and safety of naval operations involve higher acceptance of risk in wartime and less toleration of risk in peacetime true What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates? Decrease the sortie rate due to complexity of weapons What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy? Aircraft carrier Which factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the application of non-organic assets? Inflight refueling Which of the following correctly describe carrier organization and operations? Carrier is organized in a steep hierarchy by rank with clear chain of command. Flight operations’ planning is conducted by relatively “flat” collegial organization. Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force? Improved ship design Carrier Air Wing Advantages of PGMs include all but one of the following: reduced costs and maintenance expenses Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions(JDAM) are? Operates in adverse weather Converts “dumb” bomb into precision guided weapon Circular Error Probability” refers to: Area in which 50% of ordnance can be expected to hit. Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through “punctuated stability”; this refers to? Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability. Concept of Operations(CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include: battle damage assessment Match the aircraft with their primary mission. Air defense and strike = F-14 tomcat ASW, air refueling = S-3B Viking Electronic attack = EA-6B Prowler Early warning = E-2C Hawkeye Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following: National Command Authority Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by: All of the answers are correct Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings. Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War. The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single fighting system. Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of the carrier air wing. The F/A Super Hornet is capable of all but the following missions ASW The Joint Strike Fighter which will replace the Tomcats and Hornets in some of its versions has all the following advantages except: ASW capability What do the Tomcat, Prowler, Viking, Joint Strike Fighter currently have in common? Recent mission changes What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition? all What is the principal limitation of PGMs? Cost What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch? The embarked air wing Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets? Combat air patrol Which weapons caused the greatest damage to Iraqi targets in the Gulf War? Laser guided bombs Tomahawk Land Attack Missile Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component Commander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present, the tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path? Naval Component Commander (NCC), TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC), Launch Area Coordinator (TAC), TLAM firing unit Submarines can communicate with surface units _____________. when operating at periscope depth Submarines have the ability to launch ______________. Tomahawks from torpedo tubes and from vertical launch tubes if so equipped Submarines must launch their VLS Tomahawks ___________. while submerged to avoid damage to the system The _____ assigns targets, numbers of missiles, and time on target so firing units can execute the launch. Launch Sequence Plan (LSP) The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes ___________. either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both protects the missile during transport and serves as the missile's launch tube The Block IV or TLAM-E ______________. Substantially increases the capabilities of the Block III missile while cutting the cost in half The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ________. reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator ____________. is appointed by the Naval Component Commander/Tomahawk Executive Agent and is responsible for all TLAM strike planning, coordination, and reporting strikes Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile? survivability in a high threat environment Which of the following is not true? Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas where collateral damage is not a concern The tomahawk strike coordinator is the launch area coordinator's principal agent, responsible for leading the execution of TLAM strike operations Which of the following is true Tomahawk flight profiles must be de-conflicted with other air operations Introduction to Expeditionary Warfare Operations “A military operation launched from the sea with the primary purpose of introducing a landing force ashore” is the definition for what term An amphibious operation A Battleship Division All the answers are correct A type of amphibious operation designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit to a disadvantageous course of action is known as a/an ______________. demonstration Advantages gained by using Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) must be maintained by the landing force. The concept that supports this aspect is known as ______________. Ship-to-objective maneuver (STOM) An amphibious force might include which of the following? All of the answers are correct Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts? All of the answers are correct Key aspects of OMFTS include which of the following? All of the answers are correct Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) ______________. Increases the complexity for the enemy in defending a coastline Requires that the landing force first establish an assembly area ashore Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the Navy’s concept of Forward from the Sea. It accomplishes this by ___________________. All of the answers are correct Strengths of amphibious operations do not include which of the following aspects Uncomplicated logistic support The amphibious planning process ___________________. All of the answers are correct The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ___________________. All of the answers are correct The Commander, Landing Force (CLF), a senior Marine Corps officer, is responsible for which of the following Conduct of the assault The concept known as STOM includes which of the following? All of the answers are correct The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to previously deployable forces? All of the answers are correct The ESG provides substantial resources to supplement the assault force that include which of the following An attack submarine The Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) is a versatile sea-based force capable of which of the following All the answers are correct Surface Warfare (SUW) "Asymmetric threat" refers to: Threat from unconventional naval forces Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force because they are: All of the answers are correct Asymmetric threats to the surface fleet do not normally include: Chemical weapons Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to: All the answers are correct Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of “combat boats” has which of the following effects: Complicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces. Principal sources of threat to the task force include Surface forces; anti-ship missiles; and mines and submarines Short range protection of major surface units relies on which of the following? Mark 45, 5” 54 caliber gun and Harpoon missile The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets: All of the answers are correct What is the most critical task of the Surface Warfare Commander? Develop and maintain the Recognized Maritime Position. Which is NOT among the primary roles of the Surface Warfare Commander? Direct submarine operations Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode? Maverick and Hellfire Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of the ASM threat All the answers are correct Air Defense ____________________ is the primary mission of air defense. Defense in Depth Absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval operations. False Airborne attacks may be launched from submarines, surface ships, aircraft, and land bases. true Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare commanders facilitates: Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance data; and security for departing and landing aircraft. In the current environment, difficulties in air defense are caused by: Less reaction time, greater difficulty in predicting timing and sector of attack, and greater stress on data gathering and communications. Non-organic air defense support refers to: All of the answers are correct Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include: Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds and ranges of weapons and launch platforms, and increased difficulty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons. Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense responsibility. The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense operations. The Air Defense Commander must be None of the answers are correct The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense operations from An aegis cruiser To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense ________ enemy airborne platforms and weapons. All of the answers are correct Which of the following does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hostile air borne threats: Conduct sequential operations, including air defense for amphibious landings Which of the following refers to the procedure of denying or allowing the use of certain electromagnetic systems during force operations? EMCON Which phase of the air defense mission deals with threat assessment surveillance Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission? Point defense ships and patrol craft Undersea Warfare (USW) Area ASW operations are ______________. Usually commanded and controlled from a shore-based facility Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________. detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earth’s magnetic field caused by the submarine’ Mines were first successfully laid by aircraft during ______________. World War II SSBN and SSGN submarine ASW capabilities are principally used for what purpose? Reusable sonobuoys The AN/SLQ-38 ______________. Is used to cut the mooring cables of moored mines The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutralization System ___________________. features a self-propelled, remotely-controlled Mine Neutralization Vehicle The ASW warfare commander’s call sign under the Navy’s Composite Warfare Commander concept is ___________________. AX The current submarine threat ______________. Is more likely to be a diesel powered submarine The most accurate method of verifying that a submerged submarine is hostile or friendly is by using ______________ sonar. passive The Prairie Air System reduces a ship’s radiated noise by ______________. Supplying air along the leading edge of the propeller blades The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________. Acoustic and non-acoustic The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly submarines are ___________________. prevention of mutual interference and water space management Wake homing torpedoes and sub-launched anti-ship missiles are weapons associated with ______________. Both nuclear and diesel powered submarines What are the Navy’s three types of ASW platforms? Submarines, surface ships, and aircraft. What are the three classifications of mines? Bottom, moored, and contact What is NOT and effective self-protection method for reducing ship magnetism? Acoustic silencing What is the optimal platform for reseeding a minefield? P-3C Orion When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine, the Near-term Reconnaissance System (NMRS) vehicle ___________________. is launched and recovered through a torpedo tube Which mine countermeasure method is used for the collection of drifting mines Single ship antenna sweep Which of the following is NOT true? While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are driven by Air Independent Propulsion systems still must typically snorkel at least once a day to recharge their batteries. Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols. U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platforms. The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and defensive submarine operations. At then end of its preset battery life, sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded information can be downloaded for analysis. Advances is sonar and computer technology have made underwater sound propagation entirely predictable Which of the following is true? Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a submarine or an acoustic mine. Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out of the noise generated by the ship. Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing vessel. The Navy's SSGNs are planned to carry 150 Tomahawk cruise missiles US submarine development has shifted towards developing capabilities against diesel powered submarines operating in shallow water Which of the following statements is NOT true Submarine are the platform of choice for the replenishment of large minefields due to the larger number of mines they can carry Which species of marine mammals are used for mine detection and marking Dolphins and sea lions Naval Special Warfare A clandestine operation ____________________. is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself A Naval Special Warfare Squadron ____________________. is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core training requirements A SEAL team is composed of ____________________. a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons A typical Naval Special Warfare Squadron generally contains ______________. Six SEAL platoons Direct Action missions ____________________. involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by ____________________. Special Boat Teams Naval Special Warfare (NSW) forces normally deploy as ______________. An NSW Squadron Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United States ____________________. are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander Operations that include actions to prevent, limit and/or minimize the development, possession and employment of weapons of mass destruction are part of the ______________ mission CP Select all that apply. Psychological Operations Information Operations Select the statement that is NOT true. Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators to foreign audiences to influence their actions. Information Operations are generally directed at strategic or operational intelligence requirements The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is ____________________. Counterterrorism The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________. delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from submarines The army component of the U.S. Special Operations Command is the ____________________. Army Special Operations Command (USASOC) The MK-V Special Operations Craft ______________. Is capable of carrying an entire SEAL platoon The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________. is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant commanders The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________. is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in ____________________. low to medium threat environments Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron? All of the answers are correct Which of these is NOT a mission conducted by Navy Special Warfare forces? Civil Affairs Operations Naval Logistics ________ is the unified commander designated as the DOD single manager for common-user transportation. U.S. Transportation Command MSC’s Kilauea Class ammunition ships ____________________. Have no armament Operational logistics ____________________. encompasses theater support sites and activities, ashore or afloat, and the theater transportation required to move personnel and material to and from supported forces Prepositioned equipment—both afloat and ashore—is considered logistics support at the ___________________. strategic level Ready Reserve Force ships ____________________. are under Military Sealift Command control when activated Repair of internal components of an F/A-18 engine would normally occur at the ________ level of maintenance. Intermediate Repair parts are considered ______________. Class IV supplies The ________ level of logistic support is concerned with the movement of supplies among combat forces. Tactical The bulk of the Navy’s combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by ____________________. the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force The Dry Cargo Office ____________________. handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be accommodated by regularly scheduled ocean liner service The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered ____________________. organizational-level maintenance The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of which class of supplies? Class V The Military Sealift Command’s Combat Prepositioning Force supports ____________________. Army prepositioning requirements The Military Sealift Command’s eight fast sealift ships ____________________. can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U.S. Army mechanized division The Military Sealift Command’s largest combat logistics ships are the ______________. Supply class T-AOEs The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is ____________________. the Military Sealift Command (MSC) The Navy’s two hospital ships ___________________. contain 12 fully-equipped operating rooms each The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of the Navy’s logistics process? Distribution The sustainment element of the logistics process is ____________________. the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support required to maintain operations Which of the following is NOT a process element of logistics? Distribution Which of the following is NOT true? Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ship’s company. Fundamentals of Joint Warfare A unified command will always contain which of the following Service components Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action synchronizes and/or integrates joint and single-service operations with the actions of supporting combatant commands, other military forces during multinational operations, and nonmilitary and other federal government agencies. True Joint warfare is best described as the ______________. Integrated and synchronized application of all appropriate capabilities On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select the best answer.) Geographic or functional The Combatant Commander’s campaign is based on which of the following? All of the answers are correct The Joint Forces Maritime Component Commander is an example of a ______________. Functional component commander The term joint forces includes which of the following commands? All of the answers are correct What level of authority is normally exercised by the functional component commanders of a combatant command Tactical control (TACON) Which command is NOT a functional combatant command? U.S. Southern Command Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement; “Cooperation among the combatant commanders and their supporting joint force and component commanders is crucial?” Unity of Effort Which of the following is NOT a function of the combatant commander Budget and procure service-specific equipment Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship? Administrative Control (ADCON) Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and functions and provides the commander a means to measure, report, and correct performance? Control Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command? A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander composed of forces from two or more military departments. Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally accomplished? By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command? U.S. Forces Korea Fundamentals of Information Operations Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or adversary automated information systems or networks are a part of ___________________. computer network exploitation (CNE) Department of Defense policy describes “information superiority” as: the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and disseminate an uninterrupted flow of information while exploiting or denying an adversary’s ability to do the same. Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________. the J-3 (Operations) Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following except ______________. prisoner of war interrogation Leadership, morale, and level of training are factors that influence the ______________ dimension of the information environment cognitive The Combatant Commanders’ plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by ________________. the Office of the Secretary of Defense The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence decision making, the flow of information, and the interpretation of information by individuals or groups at any level in a state or organization are properties associated with which dimension of the information environment? Cognitive The three dimensions of the information environment are ______________. The physical, the informational, and the cognitive The three main subdivisions of Computer Network Operations are Computer network attack, computer network defense, and computer network exploitation Which of the following statements is NOT true? Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to both domestic and foreign audiences. Information Operations (IO) is only concerned with information collected, processed and disseminated through networked computer systems operated by an adversary. Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of Operations Security actions. The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups. Disrupting the transmission of an adversary government's television station by physically attacking it with aircraft is outside the realm of Information Operations Which of the following statements is true? The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack, electronic protection, and electronic warfare support. Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or adversary automated information systems or networks. Psychological Operations are the only Department of Defense (DOD) operations authorized to influence foreign target audiences directly Civil-Military Operations may include military personnel performing functions that are normally the responsibility of a national government Who has been given the specific responsibility to coordinate Information Operations (core capabilities) among the combatant commanders Commander, US Strategic Command United States Army ___________________ are capable of at least limited short-term self-defense and are commanded by lieutenant colonels. battalion ______________ operations create and preserve conditions for the success of decisive operations shaping ______________ unifies all of the elements of the Army’s battlefield organization purpose A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to maneuver and fire. Platoon Armored Cavalry Regiments are capable of acting as a ______________. Select all that apply all As part of the Army’s redesign, it moved away from being a ______________-centric force and transformed into a more flexible ______________-centric modular combat team Division, brigade Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following? The Mechanized Infantry Division For the Army, its doctrine ______________. Reflects the Army's approach to combat Given their similarities, the concepts of Battlespace and Area of Operations are often used interchangeably by Army commanders false Heavy divisions offer exceptional: Tactical mobility. Heavy maneuver forces can maneuver strategically with ease and are ideally suited for operations in urban terrain false Mechanized, armored, and air assault divisions require a significant amount of ______________ in order to conduct operations. Select all that apply (3x) strategic lift ; logistic sustainment ; time to assemble One of the greatest challenges routinely faced by Army leaders and planners is how to get the right force to the battlefield in a timely manner True Since the Army’s Civil Affairs and PSYOPS forces are comprised mostly of Army Reserve personnel, they are rarely deployed and spend more time at their home bases than any other type of Army unit false Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift. False The ___________________ is the largest division in the U.S. Army. Mechanized Infantry Division The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and the spectrum of conflict is a key differentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Marine Corps. True The Air Assault Division is considered: All of the answers are correct. The Army has approximately ______________ soldiers serving on active duty 600,000 The Army is comprised of ______________ divisions 10 The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise command and control over all land forces, and may be an allied or coalition commander. True The key difference between the airborne division and the light infantry division is: Airborne has the ability to conduct forcible entry operations; light infantry does not. The U.S. Army’s ___________________ provides combatant commanders with a broad range of land power options to shape the security environment. strategic responsiveness The two basic types of Army divisions, in terms of their fighting power, are ______________. Heavy and light What are the “hidden” transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division? Square footage requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division. What is the primary mission of a brigade? To deploy on short notice and destroy, capture, or repel enemy forces, using maneuver and shock effect Which of the following are roles of the U.S. Army? Select all that apply (3x) prompt and sustained land combat ; defeating enemy land forces ; seizing, occupying, and defending land areas Which of the following are tenets of Army operations? Select all that apply (3x) initiative ; agility ; synchoronization Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component? The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any primary U.S. Army mission area. Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency? Sea-based operations Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support, aeromedical evacuation, command and control, and special operations support to combat, stability, and support operations? UH-60L Blackhawk United States Air Force ___________________ allows the U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal risk and collateral damage. Precision engagement ___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemy’s center of gravity or other vital targets. Strategic attack An Air Force Air Operations Center (AOC) is capable of providing command and control for joint air operations anywhere in the theater true If the operation is relatively small in scale, a Joint Force Commander may assign a naval officer as the Joint Force Air Component Commander true Joint Force Commanders will normally assign a(n) ______________ officer the responsibilities of Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) to coordinate air operations in a Joint Operation Area Air force Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of satellite link frequencies are operations achieved by this U.S. Air Force function: Counterspace Steady state conditions for an Air Expeditionary Task Force typically allow for ______________ hours of operation every day, with additional surge capability available for short durations 12 Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery systems used. True The “Numbered Air Forces” are junior to the Air Force’s major commands true The “officer to enlisted” ratio in the Air Force is approximately ______________ to 1 4 The Air Force airpower tenet of ______________ explains that a single commander, focused on the broader aspects of an operation, can best mediate the competing demands for air and space support against the strategic and operational requirements of a conflict Centralized control The Air Force airpower tenet of ______________ explains that limited resources require that forces be applied for the greatest contribution to the most critical current Joint Force Commander (JFC Priority The Air Force believes that air and space power will eventually render land and naval forces obsolete false The Air Force employs ______________ tenets of airpower that are central to their doctrine and compliment the principles of war 7 The Air Force’s “Total Force” numbers approximately ______________ personnel 658,000 The Air Force’s origins are rooted in ______________ during the First and Second World Wars The Army Air Corps The Air Force’s primary operational domain is the air, making NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) the lead agency in U.S. military space operations False The C-5, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobility Command’s __________. Strategic airlift concept The type of Air Force command immediately junior to a “Numbered Air Force” is called a ______________. wing The U.S. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain flexible and efficient combat operations. Agile combat support The U.S. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of the following aircraft: B-2 The U.S. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at the decisive time and place is one of the most constant and important trends found throughout military history. Concentration USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by specially-trained Special Operations personnel. False Which aircraft is considered the USAF’s front-line ground-attack aircraft providing critical close air support to friendly forces on the ground? A-10 Which aircraft is the newest, most flexible aircraft capable of rapid strategic delivery of troops and cargo, as well as tactical airlift and air drop? C-17 Globemaster III Which of the following are Air Force core competencies? Select all that apply (2x) leveraging technology to warfighting ; developing airmen Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) accurate location and time reference in support of strategic, operational, and tactical operations: Select all Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the electromagnetic spectrum? RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations? Air refueling United States Marine Corps A key component of OMFTS is: The assembly area, attack position, and LOD are all at sea and over the horizon All Marine Corps components reinforce and support the ______________. Marine Corps Operating Forces An integrated organization of air, ground, and logistics forces is a(n): MAGTF Approximately how many Marines are 25-years old or younger Three quarters Due to the Marines’ rigid task force construct, they are usually assigned to operate independently of joint forces false Historically, the Marine Corps has conducted operations ______________ of the ROMO At the lower end In order to deploy rapidly without the delays inherent to mobilizing reserves, the Marine Corps maintains its active force at about ______________ percent of its total force 80 List the strategic concepts governing the use of military force in the execution of the National Military Strategy. Strategic agility, overseas presence, power projection, decisive force Marine Air-Ground Task Forces are capable of being deployed to areas with no pre-existing infrastructure (roads, electrical power, etc true Marines are prepared to deploy into ______________ environments. Select all that apply Austere Marines fight as an integrated air-ground-logistics task force under a single commander called a ______________. MAGTF Marines seek to avoid attrition by employing ______________ warfare against an adversary’s critical vulnerabilities maneuver Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS): All of the answers are correct The “Three Block War” concept means that Marines must be able to ______________. Select all that apply (3X) engage in humanitarian operations on one block ; perform stability and counterinsurgency operations on one block ; wage conventional combat on one block The general functions and composition of the Marine Corps are described in ______________. Select all that apply (2X) DoD Directive 5100.1 ; Title 10, US Code The largest type of Marine Air-Ground Task Force that deploys for combat is called a ______________. Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF) The Marine Corps fields specialized forces that may be deployed outside of the MAGTF, these forces are: Select all that apply (3x) chemical biological incident response force ; anti-terrorism battalion ; security force battalion The Marine Corps is organized into ______________ broad components four The Marine Corps utilizes ______________ Maritime Prepositioning Squadron(s) that contain a total of 16 ships to provide its strategic lift capability Three The Marine Corps’ standing operational organizations are called ______________. Marine expeditionary forces (MEFs) The Marine Special Operations Command is under the operational control of ______________. US Special Operations Command The Maritime Prepositioning Force (MPF) currently possesses a forcible entry capability and therefore can offload equipment and supplies in a hostile environment. False The MEF typically fights at the ______________ level to fulfill the Joint Force Commander’s objectives tactical The Navy-Marine Corps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for ___________________. expeditionary force; overseas deployment The personnel, bases, and activities that support the Marine Corps’ operating forces comprise the Marine Corps ______________. Supporting establishment The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of heavy equipment and supplies during the ship-to-shore movement of an amphibious assault, and during subsequent operations ashore: CH-53 E Super Stallion The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes are set by law? False There are ______________ types of Marine Air Ground Task Forces four U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of operations are based on the principle of “Maneuver Warfare.” True Which event marked the beginning of large-scale U.S. Marine Corps involvement in Viet Nam? The landing of the 9th MEB at Da Nang. Which forces comprise the Marine Corps’ combatant command-level service components? Select all that apply (2x) MARFORPAC ; MARFORCOM