Exam (elaborations) NR 511 Test Bank AANP-FNP lightning Round Complete Review 2021

TEST BANK with Complete Questions and Solutions. To clarify, this is the TEST BANK, not the textbook. You get immediate access to download your test bank. You will receive a complete test bank; in other words, all chapters will be there. Test banks come in PDF format; therefore, you do not need specialized software to open them. Exam (elaborations) NR 511 Test Bank AANP-FNP lightning Round Complete Review 2021 AANP-FNP lightning round review-#2 1.How many sets of Kegels should be done each day to help with urinary incontinence? -Three sets of 10 a day 2. What is the first line treatment for allergic rhinitis? - intranasal corticosteroid—ie: Flonase. 3. What is the term used for the loss of high-pitched tones in geriatrics? -Presbycusis 4. What type of hearing loss does cerumen impaction cause? - Conductive hearing loss 5. You see an older woman bending over leaving on her shopping cart at the grocery store. What is the likely diagnosis? -Spinal stenosis 6. Multiple myeloma is disease of what? -Plasma cells 7. What test in the office can you use to help diagnose sciatica? - Straight leg test (Always pick the cheapest, most noninvasive tests first!!) 8. I have heel pain that is worse in the morning. What is my likely diagnosis? - Plantar fasciitis 90. The Lachman test is used to help diagnose what? - ACL 10. Other tests for acl include -anterior and posterior drawer tests 11. What is the treatment for gout and what would be the medication instructions for a flare? - Colchicine and take 1.2 mg at the first sign of flare, followed in 1 hour with a single dose of 0.6 mg. 12. What is a sign of colchicine toxicity? - Diarrhea 13. What is a common cause of posterior knee pain? -Baker’s cyst 14. Cotton wool spots, neovascularization and microaneurysms are all Eye exam findings in what condition? -Diabetes 15. And what about AV nicking and what it is? - HTN, when an artery crosses over a vein 16. What is the treatment for bacterial sinusitis? -Augmentin 17. I’m tired, have a sore throat and swollen posterior cervical nodes on exam. What is the likely diagnosis? -Mono--The best thing I can say to help differentiate those two for memory is that P in posterior is closer to M in mono in the alphabet so that’s how I remember! 18. Recall that swollen ANTERIOR cervical nodes are seen in - strep. 19. What is a common side effect of Pyridium, an anti-spasmodic for dysuria? -Orange colored urine 20. What would be included in your list of differentials for hematuria? -Bladder cancer, kidney stones, exercise induced, trauma, medications, infection, and BPH are the most common reasons 21. What is the medication treatment for MRSA? Bactrim 22. What are some symptoms a patient with lupus would complain of? - Fatigue, malar rash aka butterfly rash, and joint aches. 23.And what is the lab that you would order it to confirm it? -ANA 24. What is the term used to describe dry, itching skin? -Xerosis 25. What is the most common kind of skin cancer? - Basal cell carcinoma reminder that this cancer presents as a pearly domed nodule, pink or flesh colored and usually has telangiectasia present 26. What medication is used to treat a cat or dog bite? -Augmentin (dogmantin) 27. What do you think of when you hear a bright beefy red rash and what is the treatment? - Candidiasis and treatment is topical anti-fungal (e.g diaper rash) 28. How would you describe the prostate in BPH? - Firm, rubbery, smooth and symmetrically enlarged. NB that prostate cancer on the other hand is asymmetrical 29. A1C> what is considered T2DM? >6.5% 30. My A1C is >10, what would be the medication of choice? Insulin (also first choice medication if fasting glucose is >300!) 31. Hypothyroidism is most common in what population? - Women >50yrs 32. Your pediatric pt has bloody discharge in his ear, what’s the likely dx? - Ruptured TM 33. Your patient presents with a burn and blisters are present. What degree burn is this? -2nd degree 34 What is the treatment for pertussis? - Macrolide (Azithromycin) 35. What bug causes the greatest mortality in community acquired pneumonia? Strep pneumo 36. What would be seen on xray of a pt with TB? A black circle usually in the upper lobes 37. Most common side effect of long-term inhaled corticosteroid use? -Osteopenia and cataracts 38. S3 heart sound is a sign of what? -Congestive heart failure (keep in mind they’re normal during pregnancy) 39. What medication do use to treat a fib? - Beta blockers 40. What is pulsus paradoxus? - A decrease in systolic pressure with inspiration usually seen in asthmatics...to measure use a blood pressure cuff and stethoscope 41. The upcoming July 4th holiday reminds you of what diagnosis? -Raynauds ..red white and blue color changing of the hands. Tx? CCBs 42. Someone with high triglyceride levels is at increased risk of what? -Pancreatitis 43. Subclinical hypothyroidism is described as what lab readings? -High TSH with a normal T4 44. A positive Markle test is significant of what? -Appendicitis ...recall that the Markle test is also known as the heel jar in which the patient raises their heels then drop them suddenly and if they experience pain it’s positive for appendicitis 45. What differentials do you think of in someone with left upper quadrant pain? -Gastritis, pancreatitis, myocardial infarction, and left lower lobe pneumonia. 46. What about left lower quadrant? -Diverticulitis 47. A positive Murphy’s sign is indicative of what? -Cholecystitis. 48. What diagnostic test would you order if this were positive? - An ultrasound 49. What is the first line treatment for GERD? - H2 blockers 50. I was going to go over hepatitis B markers but I think it’s harder to say that out loud versus seeing it on paper so going to skip that but of course remember to review those for the exam too! 51. What diagnostic test should be done for suspicion of appendicitis? -CT scan ...you should also do a CT scan for diverticulitis and speaking of diverticulitis what is the treatment? Cipro and Flagyl 52. What is the confirmatory test for HIV? Per Leik 3rd edition,  Step 1: Order HIV-1/HIV-2 antibodies and P24 antigen (combination assay) with reflexes. "Reflex" means that if positive, the lab will automatically perform the follow-up test to confirm the results. 53. What is the treatment for syphilis? -Pcn G (for all stages of it) 54. And what are some presenting features of syphilis? Rashes on soles of feet and palms of hands, painless lesions (chancre) 55. Gonorrhea treatment? Rocephin (“gone-a-cephin” helps me remember this one!) 56. Cervicitis is seen in which diagnoses? -Chlamydia and gonorrhea 57. I am a healthy 63-year-old patient, what is my goal BP according to JNC 8? - <150/90 for 60yrs+. Recall that less than 60yrs is <140/90 in addition to those with DM and CKD 58. What should we keep in mind when prescribing for the elderly population? -May have to start with half dose and increase slowly, side effects!! Especially anticholinergics 59. A low HDL and high trig level always means what? -Insulin insufficiency 60. The S1 is the closure of which valves? -AV valves, and S2 is closure of semilunar valves 61. On exam you feel a weakened peripheral pulse, what diagnosis do you think of? - PAD 62. An absent red reflex is indicative of what? Cataract 63. During an eye exam you note absent venous pulsations, what is this related to? -Papilledema 64. The Dix Hallpike maneuver is used to test for what condition? -Vertigo 65. What is the most well-known medication treatment for Vertigo? - Meclizine 66. What medication is prescribed for essential tremors? -BB (propranolol) 67. A young adult patient states that she is experiencing episodes of vision loss and abnormal limb sensations. What would be at the top of your list of differentials? - MS---and what would you do? REFER TO NEURO 68. When assessing a patient for dementia, what is the FIRST and best thing you should do? -GET A GOOD HX FROM PT BUT ALSO FAMILY 69. Name a difference between dementia and delirium? - Dementia is slow progress, delirium happens RAPIDLY 70. What is the MAIN cause of delirium? -Infection 71. Cranial Nerves review (just going over the MAIN ones I’ve seen in reviews/questions for the exam) --nose: 1 --vision: 2 --EOM: 3, 4, and 6 --trigeminal: 5 (trigeminal neuralgia) --facial: 7 (bell’s palsy)—HSV can cause Bell’s Palsy (keep in mind!) --ears: 8 --shoulders: 11 72. UTI treatment? - Macrobid 73. What about UTI in a pregnant pt? -Keflex or Amoxicillin 74. Anxiety…which meds to use for situational? -Benzos and GAD? SSRIs, SNRIs 75. What about OCD? SSRI, SNRI, TCA 76. Which population has the highest suicide rate? -Older, white males 77. What symptom is specific to the geriatric population when you think of UTIs? Confusion 78. PNA in Geri’s, how do they present? -We went over this last round, but felt it was important enough to repeat it. Tachypnea, extreme fatigue, and I didn’t mention last time but another thing to keep in mind with geris and PNA is that they MAY not have a fever with it because of decreased thermoregulation. Also can see delirium and falls. 79. What is the difference between sensitivity and specificity? - Sen= TRUE positive, they tested POSITIVE and HAVE the DA, whereas Spec= DON’T have the DA, tested NEG 80. What vitamin deficiency can alcohol lead to? -Thiamine deficiency (vit B1)---and INCREASED GGT levels 81. MMSE, what score indicates dementia? <24 (0-9 is severe) 82. 10mm+ for PPD is needed for continued investigation of TB for what two populations? -Healthcare workers and recent migrants. Note 5mm+ “ “-- HIV patients and immunosuppressant 83. What food is advised to try first in infants 4-6 months of age? -Rice cereal 84. What degree of curvature in scoliosis should warrant bracing? >20 degrees 85. Tanner staging, anyone need a refresher on this? 86. What is the leading cause of death in children? -ACCIDENTS 87. What sound during the Ortolani maneuver is a positive finding and signifies a possible hip abnormality (hip dysplasia) in infants. – -The "clunk" sound 88. A newborn's mother is discovered to be HBsAg (hepatitis B surface antigen) positive. Which of the following would you recommend for this infant? —Give BOTH the Hep B vaccine and immunoglobulin 89. Which method is used to diagnose gonorrheal pharyngitis or proctitis? —Thayer-Martin culture is recommended for screening to diagnose gonorrheal pharyngitis or proctitis. 90. What is the treatment for a medial tibial stress fracture (aka “shin splints”) -RICE Chapter 3. Health Promotion Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. _A 1. Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency? a. Calcium supplementation b. Testicular self-examination c. Bone density test d. Digital rectal examination __A__ 2. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention in a 50-year-old woman? a. Yearly mammogram b. Low animal fat diet c. Use of seat belt d. Daily application of sunscreen ___B_ 3. Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure? a. Fluid restriction b. Hemodialysis 4 days a week c. High-protein diet d. Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80 __A__ 4. Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. __F__ 1. Prevalence is the number of new cases of a particular disease. __F__ 2. The number of cases of a particular disease for the past 5 years is an example of the incidence rate. __T__ 3. “There are 1,185,000 cases of HIV/AIDS in the United States” is an example of the morbidity rate. __T__ 4. Endemic is the term used when the presence of an event is constant. __F__ 5. The “bird” flu of 2005 to 2006 is considered a sporadic outbreak. ___T_ 6. A pandemic affects many communities in a short period of time. Chapter 3. Health Promotion Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 TRUE/FALSE 1. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. ANS: T PTS: 1 4. ANS: T PTS: 1 5. ANS: F PTS: 1 6. ANS: T PTS: 1 Chapter 5. Evidence-Based Care Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ___D_ 1. Which of the following are parts of evidence-based practice? a. Clinician b. Patient c. Evidence d. All of the above __B__ 2. Which is the most important question to ask in nursing research? a. What findings constitute evidence? b. How will the findings be used? c. Is this a randomized controlled trial? d. What theory is being utilized? __D__ 3. Nursing research should be utilized by: a. Nurses at the bedside b. Advanced practice nurses c. Nurse researchers d. Nurses at all levels of practice __A__ 4. Applying evidence at the point of care requires: a. Readily available evidence-based resources b. Ability to review research literature c. Single articles in journals d. Current textbooks ___C_ 5. Practice guidelines are designed to: a. Be inflexible b. Be utilized in every circumstance c. Provide a reference point for decision making d. Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession ___B_ 6. Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline? a. Creating a physician expert panel b. Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence c. Conducting an external review of a guideline d. Developing evidence-based tables ___B_ 7. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level I evidence? a. Single, well-designed randomized clinical trial b. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies c. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization d. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies ___C_ 8. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level II evidence? a. Single descriptive or qualitative study b. Well-designed case control or cohort studies c. Single, well-designed, randomized clinical trial d. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies __A__ 9. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level III evidence? a. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization b. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies c. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies d. Opinion of authorities and expert committees __D__ 10. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level IV evidence? a. Single descriptive or qualitative study b. Opinion of authorities and expert committees c. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies d. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization _C___ 11. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level V evidence? a. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies b. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization c. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies d. Single descriptive or qualitative study __C__ 12. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VI evidence? a. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies b. Opinion of authorities and expert committees c. Well-designed case control or cohort studies d. Single descriptive or qualitative study ____B 13. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VII evidence? a. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization b. Opinion of authorities and expert committees c. Well-designed case control or cohort studies d. Single descriptive or qualitative study Chapter 5. Evidence-Based Care Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: D PTS: 1 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 6. ANS: B PTS: 1 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: D PTS: 1 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 12. ANS: C PTS: 1 13. ANS: B Chapter 6. Neurological Problems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____D 1. Which statement about confusion is true? a. Confusion is a disease process. b. Confusion is always temporary. c. Age is a reliable predictor of confusion. d. Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults. ___C_ 2. Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear? a. Meclizine b. Diphenhydramine c. Diamox d. Promethazine ___B_ 3. The hallmark of an absence seizure is: a. No activity at all b. A blank stare c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily d. The attack usually lasts several minutes __B__ 4. How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate? a. Every 3 months b. Every 6 months c. Annually d. Whenever there is a problem ____C 5. Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)? a. A teenage male b. A 65-year-old male c. A 25-year-old female d. A 60-year-old female ___D_ 6. Which of the following is a specific test to MS? a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. Computed tomography (CT) scan c. A lumbar puncture d. There is no specific test. __A__ 7. Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis? a. Cholinesterase inhibitors b. Anxiolytics c. Antidepressants d. Atypical antipsychotics __A__ 8. Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery? a. Epidural hematoma b. Subdural hematoma c. Subarachnoid hematoma d. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage __A__ 9. Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing? a. CN V b. CN VII c. CN IX d. CN X __D__ 10. Which statement best describes a carotid bruit? a. It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery. b. A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less. c. A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency. d. The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis. ___D_ 11. Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache? a. A female in her reproductive years b. A 40-year-old African American male c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night __D__ 12. Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of? a. Dementia b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Parkinson’s disease d. Delirium ___C_ 13. Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus? a. Purulent meningitis b. Chronic meningitis c. Aseptic meningitis d. Herpes meningitis __A__ 14. Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis? a. MRI b. CT c. Electroencephalogram (EEG) d. An initial lumbar puncture ___B_ 15. What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster? a. A stabbing pain on one small area of the body b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body c. A pain that is worse upon awakening d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal ___A_ 16. Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her? a. “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.” b. “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.” c. “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.” d. “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.” ___B_ 17. Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him: a. “L-dopa is neuroprotective.” b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.” c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.” d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.” ___D_ 18. Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD? a. Resting tremor b. Bradykinesia c. Rigidity d. Postural instability ___B_ 19. Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine? a. Light sensitivity b. Pulsatile pain c. Sound sensitivity d. Experiencing an aura ___B_ 20. Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo? a. The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo. b. There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visualassociated symptom with central vertigo. c. Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not. d. The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo. __B__ 21. Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis? a. Greater than 25% b. Greater than 50% c. Greater than 75% d. Only for 100% occlusion ___A_ 22. What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke? a. Aspirin b. Ticlopidine c. Clopidogrel d. Aspirin and clopidogrel ____D23. Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia? a. MRI b. CT c. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis d. EEG B____ 24. Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient? a. Sam-e b. Saint John’s Wort c. Melatonin d. Saw Palmetto ___C_ 25. Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire? a. Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube b. Determining if the patient can drive on the highway c. Asking the patient about a news event from the current week d. Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean _D___ 26. About 90% of all headaches are? a. Tension b. Migraine c. Cluster d. Without pathological cause _C___ 27. Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder? a. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again. b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive. c. Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder. d. These persons may drive but never alone. __B__ 28. Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month? a. Glatiramer acetate b. Natalizumab c. Fingolimod d. Glucocorticoids __A__ 29. The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of? I do not remember how the question was written a. Parkinson’s disease b. Alzheimer’s disease c. A CVA d. Bell’s palsy __C__ 30. A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as? a. Spinothalamic dysfunction b. Ratcheting c. Cogwheeling d. Hand tremors __B__ 31. Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition? a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Huntington’s disease ___C_ 32. Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception? a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Delirium __D__ 33. A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease: a. SLUMS b. MoCA c. FAST d. MMSE ___B_ 34. Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset? a. 1 hour b. 3 hours c. 6 hours d. 12 hours ___C_ 35. When administered at the beginning of an attack,