NSG 3600 Exam
NSG 3600 Exam 3 Pediatrics Review questions
and correct answers with Rationales/ Galen
NSG 3600 Nursing Practice in Children’s Health
Exam 4 Latest Prep Guide
A 4 year-old was brought into the clinic by her mother who reports that she pulled her arms
upward to pick her up and now the child won't use her right arm. A nursemaid's elbow is
suspected. Which statement below is correct?
The child is crying because her arm hurts.
She will need to be admitted to the hospital for fracture reduction.
Her arm is slightly flexed and held close to her body.
Her elbow is held straight at her side and her fingers are in a fist. –
Correct Answer :Her arm is slightly flexed and held close to her body.
Explanation:
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NSG 3600 Exam
Nursemaid's elbow is a subluxation of the radial head. The typical position of the affected arm
is as described in the answer above. The patient is usually not in pain unless someone
attempts to move the elbow. Reduction of the elbow can be done in an ER with the child
seated in the caregiver's lap by hyper pronation of the forearm. It is painful but very brief. No
treatment is necessary after reduction.
The age at which a child can first walk backwards is:
12 months.
15 months.
18 months
24 months. –
Correct Answer :18 months
Explanation:
Common developmental tasks for an 18 month old include: walking backwards, throwing a
ball, saying 15-20 words, pointing to multiple body parts, pointing and naming objects in a
book, and stacking 3-4 blocks.
A young child has developed a circumferential lesion on her inner forearm. It is slightly raised,
red and is pruritic. It is about 2.5 cm in diameter. This is probably related to:
a genetic disorder.
the child's new cat.
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.
a psoriatic lesion. –
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NSG 3600 Exam
Correct Answer :the child's new cat.
Explanation:
This describes ringworm. It is a fungal infection that is common in children. A typical
precipitant is a new animal like a cat. Since it appears on the inner forearm, it is likely the child
got this from holding the cat. It should be treated with a topical anti-fungal agent.
A 4 year-old is being examined today in the NP clinic. He appears shy and does not make eye
contact with the examiner. The mother does not make eye contact with the examiner either.
The patient lacks animation and does not smile. What likely possibility must be considered?
The patient is depressed.
Sexual abuse is very likely.
Neglect is possible.
The child probably does not have medical insurance. –
Correct Answer :Neglect is possible.
Explanation:
The possibility of neglect should always be given when a young patient and caregiver make
poor eye contact with the examiner. Other clues to neglect are a lack of animation and no
social smile. Additionally, the child should be observed for nutritional status, behavior,
attitude, and physical appearance. Sexual abuse should also be considered, but there is
nothing in the stem of the question to suggest this or a lack of medical insurance.
The term that describes the urethral opening on the ventral surface of the penis is:
cryptorchidism.
hypospadias.
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NSG 3600 Exam
inguinal hernia.
hydrocele. –
Correct Answer :hypospadias.
Explanation:
Hypospadias describes a condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the
penis instead of at the tip. This happens once in every 300 male births, so, is very common. It
is probably due to a defect in the hormone that influences the development of the urethra
and foreskin. Hypospadias is more common in males born to in vitro fertilization, probably due
to the mother's exposure to progesterone.
Medications considered first line to treat attention deficit disorder and attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder are Schedule:
I.
II.
III.
IV. - Correct Answer :II.
Explanation:
Schedule II medications are those described as having a high abuse risk. These can cause
severe psychological or physical dependence. Stimulants are used to treat patients with
ADD/ADHD because they are thought to affect the dopaminergic and noradrenergic systems
that cause the release of catecholamines in the synapses in the central nervous system.
Stimulants are considered first line pharmacologic therapy. Specific medication types are
methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, and mixed amphetamine salts. They all have abuse
potential and should be prescribed very cautiously.
Which of the following is appropriate for initiation of an 8 week-old with gastroesophageal
reflux?
A+ TEST BANK 4
NSG 3600 Exam 3 Pediatrics Review questions
and correct answers with Rationales/ Galen
NSG 3600 Nursing Practice in Children’s Health
Exam 4 Latest Prep Guide
A 4 year-old was brought into the clinic by her mother who reports that she pulled her arms
upward to pick her up and now the child won't use her right arm. A nursemaid's elbow is
suspected. Which statement below is correct?
The child is crying because her arm hurts.
She will need to be admitted to the hospital for fracture reduction.
Her arm is slightly flexed and held close to her body.
Her elbow is held straight at her side and her fingers are in a fist. –
Correct Answer :Her arm is slightly flexed and held close to her body.
Explanation:
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NSG 3600 Exam
Nursemaid's elbow is a subluxation of the radial head. The typical position of the affected arm
is as described in the answer above. The patient is usually not in pain unless someone
attempts to move the elbow. Reduction of the elbow can be done in an ER with the child
seated in the caregiver's lap by hyper pronation of the forearm. It is painful but very brief. No
treatment is necessary after reduction.
The age at which a child can first walk backwards is:
12 months.
15 months.
18 months
24 months. –
Correct Answer :18 months
Explanation:
Common developmental tasks for an 18 month old include: walking backwards, throwing a
ball, saying 15-20 words, pointing to multiple body parts, pointing and naming objects in a
book, and stacking 3-4 blocks.
A young child has developed a circumferential lesion on her inner forearm. It is slightly raised,
red and is pruritic. It is about 2.5 cm in diameter. This is probably related to:
a genetic disorder.
the child's new cat.
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.
a psoriatic lesion. –
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NSG 3600 Exam
Correct Answer :the child's new cat.
Explanation:
This describes ringworm. It is a fungal infection that is common in children. A typical
precipitant is a new animal like a cat. Since it appears on the inner forearm, it is likely the child
got this from holding the cat. It should be treated with a topical anti-fungal agent.
A 4 year-old is being examined today in the NP clinic. He appears shy and does not make eye
contact with the examiner. The mother does not make eye contact with the examiner either.
The patient lacks animation and does not smile. What likely possibility must be considered?
The patient is depressed.
Sexual abuse is very likely.
Neglect is possible.
The child probably does not have medical insurance. –
Correct Answer :Neglect is possible.
Explanation:
The possibility of neglect should always be given when a young patient and caregiver make
poor eye contact with the examiner. Other clues to neglect are a lack of animation and no
social smile. Additionally, the child should be observed for nutritional status, behavior,
attitude, and physical appearance. Sexual abuse should also be considered, but there is
nothing in the stem of the question to suggest this or a lack of medical insurance.
The term that describes the urethral opening on the ventral surface of the penis is:
cryptorchidism.
hypospadias.
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NSG 3600 Exam
inguinal hernia.
hydrocele. –
Correct Answer :hypospadias.
Explanation:
Hypospadias describes a condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the
penis instead of at the tip. This happens once in every 300 male births, so, is very common. It
is probably due to a defect in the hormone that influences the development of the urethra
and foreskin. Hypospadias is more common in males born to in vitro fertilization, probably due
to the mother's exposure to progesterone.
Medications considered first line to treat attention deficit disorder and attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder are Schedule:
I.
II.
III.
IV. - Correct Answer :II.
Explanation:
Schedule II medications are those described as having a high abuse risk. These can cause
severe psychological or physical dependence. Stimulants are used to treat patients with
ADD/ADHD because they are thought to affect the dopaminergic and noradrenergic systems
that cause the release of catecholamines in the synapses in the central nervous system.
Stimulants are considered first line pharmacologic therapy. Specific medication types are
methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, and mixed amphetamine salts. They all have abuse
potential and should be prescribed very cautiously.
Which of the following is appropriate for initiation of an 8 week-old with gastroesophageal
reflux?
A+ TEST BANK 4
