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Med-Surg Exam 2 (Modules 3 & 4 & Exam 3 (Modules 5 and 6) Combined set (2026/2027) 170+ Actual Questions & Verified Answers

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Boost your nursing school grades with this comprehensive, verified Med-Surg Exam Bundle featuring over (150) practice questions and answers. Designed specifically for nursing students, this combined set offers high-yield, NCLEX-style prep to help you pass with confidence. Bundle Includes • Exam 2 (Modules 3 & 4): (50+) high-yield questions with verified answers. • Exam 3 (Modules 5 & 6): (50+) comprehensive questions with verified answers. • Bonus Review Set: (50+) additional questions and answers to test your knowledge retention. Key Features • Completely Verified Answers: Every question includes the correct answer. • Multiple Question Formats: Practice with a mix of multiple-choice, SATA (Select-All-That-Apply), and NCLEX-style questions. • Instant Digital Access: Download and study immediately across any device. Who is this for? Perfect for nursing students currently taking Med-Surg, prepping for unit exams, or doing a comprehensive HESI review. Save hours of study time and master complex medical-surgical concepts fast!

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Med-Surg Exam 2 (Modules 3 & 4 & Exam 3
(Modules 5 and 6) Combined set (2026/2027)
170+ Actual Questions & Verified Answers
Boost your nursing school grades with this comprehensive, verified Med-Surg Exam Bundle
featuring over \(150\) practice questions and answers. Designed specifically for nursing students,
this combined set offers high-yield, NCLEX-style prep to help you pass with confidence.

Bundle Includes

• Exam 2 (Modules 3 & 4): \(50+\) high-yield questions with verified answers.

• Exam 3 (Modules 5 & 6): \(50+\) comprehensive questions with verified answers.

• Bonus Review Set: \(50+\) additional questions and answers to test your knowledge
retention.

Key Features

• Completely Verified Answers: Every question includes the correct answer.

• Multiple Question Formats: Practice with a mix of multiple-choice, SATA (Select-
All-That-Apply), and NCLEX-style questions.

• Instant Digital Access: Download and study immediately across any device.

Who is this for?

Perfect for nursing students currently taking Med-Surg, prepping for unit exams, or doing a
comprehensive HESI review. Save hours of study time and master complex medical-surgical
concepts fast!



Q1. Heberden and Bouchard nodules are found in which part of the body?
[Multiple Choice]

A) Fingers
B) Wrists
C) Knees
D) Spine
Answer: Fingers

1

, Explanation: Heberden and Bouchard nodules are specific osteoarthritic bony enlargements that
occur on the finger joints. Wrists, knees, and the spine are common sites of other joint problems
but are not the classic locations for Heberden and Bouchard nodules.

Q2. Which description best fits osteoarthritis? [Multiple Choice]

A) A chronic autoimmune disorder in which the joints are attacked and stiffness lasts
longer in the morning
B) Progressive loss of cartilage that improves with rest and worsens with activity
C) Arthritis caused by deposits of uric acid crystals in the joints
D) A condition in which the body's bones become weak and break easily (decreased
bone density)
Answer: Progressive loss of cartilage that improves with rest and worsens with activity
Explanation: Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease where joint cartilage progressively
wears away; symptoms commonly ease with rest and worsen with activity because motion
stresses the damaged cartilage. The rheumatoid arthritis choice is wrong because that is an
autoimmune disease with prolonged morning stiffness. The gout choice is wrong because gout is
caused by uric acid crystal deposits. The osteoporosis choice is wrong because that refers to
decreased bone density, not joint cartilage loss.

Q3. Which list represents medications used to treat osteoporosis? [Multiple Choice]

A) Prednisone, adalimumab, methotrexate
B) Acetaminophen, celecoxib, tramadol, glucosamine
C) Calcium & vitamin D, raloxifene, calcitonin, bisphosphonates, monoclonal
antibodies
D) Probenecid, colchicine, allopurinol
Answer: Calcium & vitamin D, raloxifene, calcitonin, bisphosphonates, monoclonal
antibodies
Explanation: Osteoporosis treatments include supplements (calcium and vitamin D), selective
estrogen modulators (raloxifene), calcitonin, bisphosphonates, and monoclonal antibodies for
refractory cases. The acetaminophen list is for osteoarthritis, the
probenecid/colchicine/allopurinol list is for gout, and prednisone/adalimumab/methotrexate are
used in rheumatoid arthritis.




2

,Q4. In the diagram, six unlabeled checkpoints represent a rapid stroke screen.
Explain why quick recognition of checkpoint F ("time") is critical when stroke is
suspected. [Short Answer]
Answer: BE FAST screens for acute stroke signs (balance, eyes, face, arms, speech); the
'T' for time underlines that stroke is an interruption of the brain's blood supply and that
timely recognition allows prompt evaluation for time-sensitive treatments (for example,
thrombolytic therapy), improving chances of recovery.
Explanation: The BE FAST checklist identifies focal neurological deficits that suggest an acute loss
of cerebral blood flow. Because some effective interventions (such as thrombolytics) must be
given quickly after symptom onset, noting and acting on the time of symptom recognition is
essential. A full answer links the screening items to an interrupted blood supply and explains why
rapid action affects available treatment options and outcomes.

Q5. Which statement about osteoporosis is most accurate? [Multiple Choice]

A) Progressive loss of cartilage that improves with rest and worsens with activity
B) Arthritis caused by uric acid crystal deposits
C) Inflammation of bone and bone marrow
D) Bones become weak and break easily due to decreased bone density; slender,
petite women are at higher risk
Answer: Bones become weak and break easily due to decreased bone density; slender,
petite women are at higher risk
Explanation: Osteoporosis refers to decreased bone density that makes bones fragile and prone
to fracture; the source notes slender, petite women are at higher risk. The other choices describe
osteoarthritis (cartilage loss), osteomyelitis (bone marrow inflammation), and gout (uric acid
crystals), which are different conditions.

Q6. Which statement best describes rheumatoid arthritis? [Multiple Choice]

A) Progressive loss of cartilage that improves with rest and worsens with activity
B) A type of arthritis characterized by deposits of uric acid crystals in the joints
C) A chronic autoimmune disorder in which the joints are attacked and stiffness lasts
longer in the morning
D) A condition in which the body's bones become weak and break easily (decreased
bone density)
Answer: A chronic autoimmune disorder in which the joints are attacked and stiffness
lasts longer in the morning

3

, Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune process in which the body's immune system
attacks joint tissues; patients typically experience prolonged morning stiffness from inflammatory
changes. Osteoarthritis is different because it's a wear-and-tear cartilage loss that improves with
rest. Gout is distinct because it's due to uric acid crystal deposits. Osteoporosis affects bone
density, not joint inflammation.

Q7. Which is a safety consideration when treating rheumatoid arthritis with
medications such as prednisone, adalimumab, or methotrexate? [Multiple Choice]
A) They increase bone density to prevent fractures
B) They improve symptoms by replacing cartilage
C) They dissolve uric acid crystals in joints
D) These treatments increase the risk for infection
Answer: These treatments increase the risk for infection
Explanation: Immunosuppressive and glucocorticoid therapies used for rheumatoid arthritis (like
adalimumab, methotrexate, and prednisone) lower immune defenses and therefore raise
infection risk. They do not replace cartilage (that describes degenerative changes), they do not
dissolve uric acid crystals (that is gout therapy), and they do not primarily act to increase bone
density (osteoporosis treatments do that).

Q8. How is tinnitus defined? [Multiple Choice]

A) Increased intraocular pressure
B) Ringing or buzzing in the ears
C) A crack or break in a bone
D) Clouding of the eye's lens
Answer: Ringing or buzzing in the ears
Explanation: Tinnitus refers to the perception of sound (commonly ringing or buzzing) in the ears
without an external source. Clouding of the lens describes cataracts, increased intraocular
pressure is glaucoma, and a crack or break in bone is a fracture—none describe auditory
sensations.

Q9. In the diagram, which region corresponds to the area primarily damaged in
macular degeneration that causes loss of central vision? [Multiple Choice]
A) Region 1 (central vision area)
B) Region 1 (peripheral vision area)


4

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