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NSG 3100 EXAM 4 PRACTICE TEST 100+ Questions
with Answers & Rationales
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR
1. A nurse is auscultating heart sounds. The S1 heart sound is
caused by:
A. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
B. Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves
C. Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves
D. Filling of the ventricles
Answer: A
Rationale: S1 is the "lub" sound produced by closure of the
atrioventricular (mitral/tricuspid) valves at the start of systole.
2. Which of the following is a sign of left-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary crackles and dyspnea
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Peripheral edema
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: A
Rationale: Left heart failure causes pulmonary congestion—
crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea. Right failure causes JVD, edema,
hepatomegaly.
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3. A client with right-sided heart failure is likely to have which
finding?
A. Jugular venous distention and peripheral edema
B. Pulmonary crackles
C. Orthopnea
D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Right-sided failure causes systemic venous
congestion—JVD, edema, ascites.
4. Which medication reduces mortality in heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
A. ACE inhibitor or ARNI
B. Digoxin
C. Furosemide only
D. Aspirin
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors/ARBs/ARNI, beta-blockers, MRAs, and
SGLT2 inhibitors reduce mortality in HFrEF.
5. A client is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which
finding indicates the medication is effective?
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A. Increased urine output and decreased edema
B. Weight gain
C. Increased crackles
D. Increased JVD
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide causes diuresis—increased urine output
and reduced congestion.
6. The nurse should monitor a client on furosemide for which
electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause potassium loss.
7. A client with atrial fibrillation is at highest risk for which
complication?
A. Stroke
B. Constipation
C. Hypotension only
D. Infection
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Answer: A
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation can cause blood stasis in the atria,
leading to clot formation and embolic stroke.
8. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count only
D. D-dimer only
Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored by INR; aPTT monitors
heparin.
9. Which of the following is a sign of digoxin toxicity?
A. Bradycardia, nausea, and visual disturbances (yellow halos)
B. Tachycardia and hypertension
C. Increased urine output
D. Hyperactivity
Answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity causes bradycardia, GI symptoms,
and visual changes.
NSG 3100 EXAM 4 PRACTICE TEST 100+ Questions
with Answers & Rationales
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR
1. A nurse is auscultating heart sounds. The S1 heart sound is
caused by:
A. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
B. Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves
C. Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves
D. Filling of the ventricles
Answer: A
Rationale: S1 is the "lub" sound produced by closure of the
atrioventricular (mitral/tricuspid) valves at the start of systole.
2. Which of the following is a sign of left-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary crackles and dyspnea
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Peripheral edema
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: A
Rationale: Left heart failure causes pulmonary congestion—
crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea. Right failure causes JVD, edema,
hepatomegaly.
, Page |2
3. A client with right-sided heart failure is likely to have which
finding?
A. Jugular venous distention and peripheral edema
B. Pulmonary crackles
C. Orthopnea
D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Right-sided failure causes systemic venous
congestion—JVD, edema, ascites.
4. Which medication reduces mortality in heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
A. ACE inhibitor or ARNI
B. Digoxin
C. Furosemide only
D. Aspirin
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors/ARBs/ARNI, beta-blockers, MRAs, and
SGLT2 inhibitors reduce mortality in HFrEF.
5. A client is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which
finding indicates the medication is effective?
, Page |3
A. Increased urine output and decreased edema
B. Weight gain
C. Increased crackles
D. Increased JVD
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide causes diuresis—increased urine output
and reduced congestion.
6. The nurse should monitor a client on furosemide for which
electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause potassium loss.
7. A client with atrial fibrillation is at highest risk for which
complication?
A. Stroke
B. Constipation
C. Hypotension only
D. Infection
, Page |4
Answer: A
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation can cause blood stasis in the atria,
leading to clot formation and embolic stroke.
8. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count only
D. D-dimer only
Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored by INR; aPTT monitors
heparin.
9. Which of the following is a sign of digoxin toxicity?
A. Bradycardia, nausea, and visual disturbances (yellow halos)
B. Tachycardia and hypertension
C. Increased urine output
D. Hyperactivity
Answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity causes bradycardia, GI symptoms,
and visual changes.
