ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam Test Bank
| Complete Practice Exam Questions with
100% Verified Correct Answers and Detailed
Rationales | Latest Edition -2025/2026 Newest
Update | (100% Pass Rate!) Already Graded A+
Question 1
A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client that has
conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following
statements should the nurse include in the assessment?
A. Tell me about your siblings?
B. Tell me what kind of music you like?
C. Tell me how often do you drink alcohol?
D. Tell me about your school schedule?
Answer: C
Rationale: Substance use is a risk factor for suicide and should be assessed in a client with
conduct disorder who has threatened suicide. Asking about alcohol use (C) directly addresses
a modifiable risk factor. Siblings (A), music preference (B), and school schedule (D) are not
priority assessment questions for a client with suicidal ideation.
Question 2
A nurse is observing bonding between a client and her newborn. Which of the following
actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?
A. Holding the newborn in an en face position
B. Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper
C. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest
D. Viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative
Answer: D
Rationale: Viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative indicates a misinterpretation of
normal newborn behavior and may signal impaired bonding. En face position (A) promotes
bonding. Asking the father to change the diaper (B) is appropriate paternal involvement.
Requesting rest (C) is a normal self-care need.
1
,Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking levothyroxine. Which of the following findings
should indicate that the medication is effective?
A. Weight loss
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Absence of seizures
D. Decrease inflammation
Answer: A
Rationale: Weight loss indicates that the medication is effectively treating hypothyroidism by
restoring metabolic rate. Decreased blood pressure (B) is not a primary effect. Absence of
seizures (C) is not related to levothyroxine. Decrease inflammation (D) is not a primary effect.
Question 4
A nurse is planning discharge teaching for cord care for the parent of a newborn. Which
instructions would you include in the teaching?
A. Contact the provider if the cord still turns black
B. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily
C. Keep the cord dry until it falls off
D. The cord stump will fall off in five days
Answer: C
Rationale: The cord should be kept clean and dry to prevent infection. It will turn black (A)
naturally. Clean with neutral pH cleanser (not hydrogen peroxide, B). The cord falls off in 10-
14 days (not 5 days, D).
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates
decreased cardiac output?
A. Shivering
B. Oliguria
C. Bradycardia
D. Constricted pupils
Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (decreased urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output due to
reduced renal perfusion. Shivering (A) may indicate hypothermia. Bradycardia (C) indicates
respiratory depression. Constricted pupils (D) may indicate drug effects.
2
,Question 6
A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which
of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?
A. A client that has massive head trauma
B. A client has full thickness burns to face and trunk
C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
D. A client with open fracture of the lower extremity
Answer: C
Rationale: A client with hypovolemic shock (C) is a high priority (emergent) because they
require immediate intervention to survive. Massive head trauma (A) and full thickness burns
to face/trunk (B) are expectant (likely to die). Open fracture (D) is urgent but not the priority.
Question 7
A nurse is receiving report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse
assess first?
A. A client who has ileal conduit and mucus in the pouch
B. Client with arteriovenous fistula with vibration palpated
C. A client whose chronic kidney disease with cloudy dialysate outflow
D. A client with transurethral resection of the prostate with red tinged urine in the bag
Answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow indicates infection (peritonitis), which is a life-
threatening complication requiring immediate assessment. Mucus in an ileal conduit pouch (A)
is normal. A vibrating fistula (B) indicates patency. Red-tinged urine post-TURP (D) is
expected.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is
an appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Place cardiac monitoring
B. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
C. Provide standby assist with the client from bed
D. Encourage foods high in potassium
Answer: C
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause orthostatic hypotension, especially
after the first dose. The nurse should provide standby assist when the client gets up. Cardiac
monitoring (A) is not routinely required. Oxygen saturation (B) is not specifically indicated.
Potassium-rich foods (D) should be limited, not encouraged.
3
, Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The
nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. Which of the following
should the nurse expect?
A. Fetal hypoxia
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Post maturity
D. Head compression
Answer: D
Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression during contractions and are
benign. Fetal hypoxia (A) causes late decelerations. Abruptio placentae (B) causes variable or
late decelerations. Post maturity (C) is not a direct cause.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which
of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute
B. BUN 16 mg/dL
C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
Answer: A
Rationale: A GFR of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney impairment and is an indication
for hemodialysis. BUN 16 mg/dL (B) is normal. Magnesium 1.8 mg/dL (C) is normal.
Phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL (D) is normal.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of
the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Place infant under radiant warmer
B. Move the probe site every 3 hrs
C. Heat the skin one minute prior to placing the probe
D. Place a sensor on the index finger
Answer: C
Rationale: Heating the skin for one minute prior to placing the probe improves circulation
and accuracy in infants. Radiant warmer (A) is not specifically indicated. Probe sites should
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| Complete Practice Exam Questions with
100% Verified Correct Answers and Detailed
Rationales | Latest Edition -2025/2026 Newest
Update | (100% Pass Rate!) Already Graded A+
Question 1
A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client that has
conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following
statements should the nurse include in the assessment?
A. Tell me about your siblings?
B. Tell me what kind of music you like?
C. Tell me how often do you drink alcohol?
D. Tell me about your school schedule?
Answer: C
Rationale: Substance use is a risk factor for suicide and should be assessed in a client with
conduct disorder who has threatened suicide. Asking about alcohol use (C) directly addresses
a modifiable risk factor. Siblings (A), music preference (B), and school schedule (D) are not
priority assessment questions for a client with suicidal ideation.
Question 2
A nurse is observing bonding between a client and her newborn. Which of the following
actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?
A. Holding the newborn in an en face position
B. Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper
C. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest
D. Viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative
Answer: D
Rationale: Viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative indicates a misinterpretation of
normal newborn behavior and may signal impaired bonding. En face position (A) promotes
bonding. Asking the father to change the diaper (B) is appropriate paternal involvement.
Requesting rest (C) is a normal self-care need.
1
,Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking levothyroxine. Which of the following findings
should indicate that the medication is effective?
A. Weight loss
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Absence of seizures
D. Decrease inflammation
Answer: A
Rationale: Weight loss indicates that the medication is effectively treating hypothyroidism by
restoring metabolic rate. Decreased blood pressure (B) is not a primary effect. Absence of
seizures (C) is not related to levothyroxine. Decrease inflammation (D) is not a primary effect.
Question 4
A nurse is planning discharge teaching for cord care for the parent of a newborn. Which
instructions would you include in the teaching?
A. Contact the provider if the cord still turns black
B. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily
C. Keep the cord dry until it falls off
D. The cord stump will fall off in five days
Answer: C
Rationale: The cord should be kept clean and dry to prevent infection. It will turn black (A)
naturally. Clean with neutral pH cleanser (not hydrogen peroxide, B). The cord falls off in 10-
14 days (not 5 days, D).
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates
decreased cardiac output?
A. Shivering
B. Oliguria
C. Bradycardia
D. Constricted pupils
Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (decreased urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output due to
reduced renal perfusion. Shivering (A) may indicate hypothermia. Bradycardia (C) indicates
respiratory depression. Constricted pupils (D) may indicate drug effects.
2
,Question 6
A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which
of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?
A. A client that has massive head trauma
B. A client has full thickness burns to face and trunk
C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
D. A client with open fracture of the lower extremity
Answer: C
Rationale: A client with hypovolemic shock (C) is a high priority (emergent) because they
require immediate intervention to survive. Massive head trauma (A) and full thickness burns
to face/trunk (B) are expectant (likely to die). Open fracture (D) is urgent but not the priority.
Question 7
A nurse is receiving report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse
assess first?
A. A client who has ileal conduit and mucus in the pouch
B. Client with arteriovenous fistula with vibration palpated
C. A client whose chronic kidney disease with cloudy dialysate outflow
D. A client with transurethral resection of the prostate with red tinged urine in the bag
Answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow indicates infection (peritonitis), which is a life-
threatening complication requiring immediate assessment. Mucus in an ileal conduit pouch (A)
is normal. A vibrating fistula (B) indicates patency. Red-tinged urine post-TURP (D) is
expected.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is
an appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Place cardiac monitoring
B. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
C. Provide standby assist with the client from bed
D. Encourage foods high in potassium
Answer: C
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause orthostatic hypotension, especially
after the first dose. The nurse should provide standby assist when the client gets up. Cardiac
monitoring (A) is not routinely required. Oxygen saturation (B) is not specifically indicated.
Potassium-rich foods (D) should be limited, not encouraged.
3
, Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The
nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. Which of the following
should the nurse expect?
A. Fetal hypoxia
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Post maturity
D. Head compression
Answer: D
Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression during contractions and are
benign. Fetal hypoxia (A) causes late decelerations. Abruptio placentae (B) causes variable or
late decelerations. Post maturity (C) is not a direct cause.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which
of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute
B. BUN 16 mg/dL
C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
Answer: A
Rationale: A GFR of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney impairment and is an indication
for hemodialysis. BUN 16 mg/dL (B) is normal. Magnesium 1.8 mg/dL (C) is normal.
Phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL (D) is normal.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of
the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Place infant under radiant warmer
B. Move the probe site every 3 hrs
C. Heat the skin one minute prior to placing the probe
D. Place a sensor on the index finger
Answer: C
Rationale: Heating the skin for one minute prior to placing the probe improves circulation
and accuracy in infants. Radiant warmer (A) is not specifically indicated. Probe sites should
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