HONDROS HESI PN EXIT EXAM 2026 | LATEST EXAM QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS

HONDROS HESI PN EXIT EXAM 2026 |
LATEST EXAM QUESTIONS & CORRECT
ANSWERS
HONDROS HESI PN EXIT EXAM 2026 | LATEST EXAM QUESTIONS & CORRECT
ANSWERS



DOCUMENT OVERVIEW

• This comprehensive study resource contains 300 practice questions designed to
mirror the exact format and difficulty level of the official HESI PN EXIT EXAM,
helping you assess your readiness for licensure and identify knowledge gaps before
test day.

• Study this material by practicing timed sections, reviewing detailed rationales for
every question, and focusing on areas where you score lowest to maximize your
retention and exam performance.



QUESTIONS

QUESTION 1: A client with COPD is experiencing an acute exacerbation. Which
of the following respiratory rates would the nurse recognize as abnormal in
this client?

A) 18 breaths per minute

B) 22 breaths per minute

C) 24 breaths per minute

D) 28 breaths per minute

E) 26 breaths per minute

CORRECT ANSWER: D) 28 breaths per minute

Rationale: A respiratory rate above 24 breaths per minute is considered tachypnea
and is abnormal. In a client with COPD experiencing acute exacerbation, respiratory
rates above 25-30 breaths per minute indicate respiratory distress and require

,immediate intervention. While 26 is also abnormal, 28 clearly demonstrates
significant respiratory compromise requiring urgent assessment.



QUESTION 2: The nurse is administering morphine sulfate IV to a client in
severe pain. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for
most closely?

A) Hypertension and tachycardia

B) Respiratory depression and decreased level of consciousness

C) Increased urinary output and hyperglycemia

D) Pupil dilation and increased alertness

E) Muscle rigidity and fever

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Respiratory depression and decreased level of
consciousness

Rationale: Morphine sulfate is a potent opioid analgesic that depresses the central
nervous system and respiratory center. The most serious adverse effects include
respiratory depression, decreased consciousness, and potential airway
compromise. The nurse must monitor respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and level
of consciousness closely. Other options do not represent typical morphine effects.



QUESTION 3: A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. The nurse
should instruct the client to report which of the following side effects
immediately?

A) Mild gastrointestinal upset and loss of appetite

B) Metallic taste in mouth and mild diarrhea

C) Muscle pain, difficulty breathing, and unusual fatigue

D) Headache and occasional dizziness

E) Dry mouth and increased thirst

,CORRECT ANSWER: C) Muscle pain, difficulty breathing, and unusual fatigue

Rationale: These symptoms suggest lactic acidosis, a serious and potentially life-
threatening adverse effect of metformin. Lactic acidosis presents with muscle pain,
dyspnea, unusual fatigue, and malaise. This is a medical emergency requiring
immediate intervention. The other options represent common, mild side effects
that typically resolve with continued use.



QUESTION 4: Which of the following findings would indicate a client is
experiencing hypovolemic shock?

A) Blood pressure 140/90, heart rate 68, skin warm and dry

B) Blood pressure 85/55, heart rate 120, skin cool and clammy

C) Blood pressure 165/95, heart rate 82, skin flushed and warm

D) Blood pressure 120/80, heart rate 100, skin pale

E) Blood pressure 130/88, heart rate 76, skin normal

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Blood pressure 85/55, heart rate 120, skin cool and
clammy

Rationale: Hypovolemic shock results from severe fluid loss and is characterized by
hypotension (SBP less than 90 mmHg), tachycardia (compensatory mechanism to
maintain perfusion), and vasoconstriction causing cool, clammy skin. This
represents the classic clinical presentation of shock requiring immediate fluid
resuscitation and intervention.



QUESTION 5: A client with pneumonia is prescribed amoxicillin. Before
administering this medication, which assessment is most important?

A) Checking the client's temperature and respiratory rate

B) Asking about allergies to penicillin and cephalosporins

C) Verifying the client has eaten within the last hour

, D) Assessing the client's white blood cell count

E) Checking for recent antibiotic use

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Asking about allergies to penicillin and cephalosporins

Rationale: Before administering any antibiotic, especially penicillins, it is critical to
assess for drug allergies. Amoxicillin is a penicillin-based antibiotic, and clients with
penicillin or cephalosporin allergies are at high risk for anaphylactic reactions. This
is a priority safety assessment that must be completed before drug administration.



QUESTION 6: A client reports dizziness and fainting. The nurse obtains
orthostatic vital signs. Which finding would indicate orthostatic hypotension?

A) Supine: 120/80, Standing: 125/82 after 3 minutes

B) Supine: 130/85, Standing: 110/65 after 1 minute

C) Supine: 118/78, Standing: 120/80 after 2 minutes

D) Supine: 125/80, Standing: 122/80 after 1 minute

E) Supine: 115/75, Standing: 116/76 after 3 minutes

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Supine: 130/85, Standing: 110/65 after 1 minute

Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a systolic blood pressure decrease
of 20 mmHg or greater, or a diastolic decrease of 10 mmHg or greater, within 3
minutes of standing. Option B shows a systolic drop of 20 mmHg (130 to 110),
meeting diagnostic criteria. This explains the client's symptoms of dizziness and
fainting with position changes.



QUESTION 7: A client is receiving digoxin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the
following would indicate digoxin toxicity?

A) Increased heart rate and hypertension

B) Nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and visual disturbances

C) Increased urinary output and polyuria