UPDATED QUESTIONS & VERIFIED
ANSWERS | COMPLETE PN EXAM PREP
HONDROS HESI PN EXIT EXAM 2026/2027 – COMPLETE PN EXAM PREP
OVERVIEW:
• This study guide contains 200 verified exam questions covering all major PN
competency areas including pharmacology, medical-surgical nursing, maternal-
neonatal care, pediatrics, psychiatric nursing, and fundamentals—organized for
systematic review and mastery of HESI content.
• Use this material by studying 20-30 questions daily, focusing on rationales to build
clinical reasoning; practice in timed conditions to improve speed and accuracy
before your actual exam.
QUESTION 1
A 45-year-old client is admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia.
The client has been on antibiotics for 3 days with no improvement. Which
laboratory value would the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Hemoglobin level
B) White blood cell count
C) Potassium level
D) Glucose level
E) Calcium level
CORRECT ANSWER: B) White blood cell count
RATIONALE: In pneumonia, the WBC count is the most critical indicator of infection
status and response to antibiotic therapy. An elevated WBC (typically >11,000)
indicates active infection, and failure of the WBC to decrease after 3 days of
antibiotics may suggest treatment failure, resistant organisms, or complications.
Hemoglobin monitors anemia (less direct), potassium and calcium are not directly
,related to pneumonia progression, and glucose monitoring is secondary unless the
client is diabetic.
QUESTION 2
A client receiving IV chemotherapy reports pain at the IV site. The nurse
observes redness and swelling around the catheter. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A) Flush the IV line with normal saline
B) Apply a warm compress to the site
C) Stop the infusion and remove the catheter
D) Obtain an order for pain medication
E) Document findings and continue monitoring
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Stop the infusion and remove the catheter
RATIONALE: This presentation suggests extravasation—leakage of chemotherapy
into tissue. Chemotherapy is vesicant and causes severe tissue damage. Immediate
action is to stop the infusion and remove the catheter to prevent further tissue
damage. Flushing will worsen extravasation, warm compresses may increase
damage, pain medication doesn't address the problem, and continuing to monitor
delays necessary intervention.
QUESTION 3
A nurse is preparing a 6-year-old child for surgery. The child is anxious and
asks repeated questions about the procedure. What is the most appropriate
nursing intervention?
A) Tell the child that everything will be fine and not to worry
B) Use simple, age-appropriate language and allow the child to ask questions
C) Explain all technical aspects of the surgery in detail
,D) Ask the parent to leave the room during explanations
E) Administer sedation before any discussion occurs
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Use simple, age-appropriate language and allow the
child to ask questions
RATIONALE: School-age children (6 years old) benefit from clear, simple
explanations using concrete language without frightening details. Allowing
questions provides psychological support and reduces anxiety. Dismissing concerns
(option A) damages trust, excessive technical detail (C) causes confusion and fear,
removing parents (D) increases anxiety, and premature sedation (E) prevents
informed assent and appropriate coping.
QUESTION 4
A client with COPD is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva) and is instructed on
proper use. Which instruction is most critical for this medication?
A) Use it only when experiencing shortness of breath
B) Rinse mouth with water after each use
C) Use it daily at the same time, even when feeling well
D) Increase the dose if symptoms worsen
E) Discontinue if mild tremors occur
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Use it daily at the same time, even when feeling well
RATIONALE: Tiotropium is a long-acting anticholinergic bronchodilator for
MAINTENANCE therapy in COPD. It must be used daily as a preventive measure, not
as needed like rescue inhalers. Using it at the same time daily improves
compliance. Rinsing the mouth (option B) is good but not most critical. Using only
during symptoms (A), self-adjusting dose (D), and stopping for tremors (E) are
incorrect—tremors are common but usually subside.
QUESTION 5
, A 72-year-old client is hospitalized after a fall and diagnosed with a fractured
femur. The client is at risk for which serious complication?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Fat embolism syndrome
C) Muscle atrophy
D) Contractures
E) Pressure ulcers
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Fat embolism syndrome
RATIONALE: Long bone fractures (especially femur) release fat globules into the
bloodstream, causing fat embolism syndrome—a medical emergency with
symptoms of sudden respiratory distress, chest pain, confusion, and petechial rash.
This is a serious, potentially fatal complication. While osteoporosis and muscle
atrophy are long-term concerns, and contractures/pressure ulcers are preventable
with nursing care, FES is the acute life-threatening complication requiring
immediate recognition.
QUESTION 6
A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse knows that which food
interaction is most important to educate the client about?
A) High sodium intake
B) Vitamin K-rich foods in varying amounts
C) High caffeine intake
D) Sugar and refined carbohydrates
E) Low-fat dairy products
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Vitamin K-rich foods in varying amounts
RATIONALE: Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is antagonized by vitamin K. Consistent
vitamin K intake is essential; fluctuating amounts of leafy greens, broccoli, Brussels