RHIT Practice Test – Health Data Management,
Coding, Information Technology, Compliance and
Revenue Cycle
1. A hospital is reviewing its Charge Description Master (CDM) and finds several items with
outdated CPT codes. Which department should the HIM director collaborate with primarily to
ensure these codes are updated for accurate billing?
A. Patient Financial Services/Finance
B. Human Resources
C. Medical Staff Office
D. Facilities Management
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The CDM is a critical link between clinical services and the billing system,
directly impacting the revenue cycle. Collaborative efforts between HIM and Patient
Financial Services ensure that the data mapping between clinical documentation and
financial reimbursement is accurate. A common trap is assuming the Medical Staff Office
handles coding updates, when their focus is actually on provider credentialing.
2. An HIM manager is evaluating the hospital’s database and notices that the ‘Patient_Name’
field contains entries like ‘John Smith’, ‘Smith, John’, and ‘J. Smith’. Which data quality
characteristic is being violated?
A. Data Currency
,B. Data Granularity
C. Data Timeliness
D. Data Consistency
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Data consistency refers to the reliability and uniformity of data across
various applications and systems. When naming conventions are not standardized, it leads
to difficulties in data retrieval and patient matching. Examinees often confuse consistency
with granularity, which refers to the level of detail (e.g., street address vs. city) rather than
the format of the information.
3. A patient is admitted for an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). During the stay, the patient
develops hospital-acquired pneumonia. According to UHDDS guidelines, what is the principal
diagnosis?
A. Hospital-acquired pneumonia
B. Acute myocardial infarction
C. The condition that required the most resources
D. The first condition listed on the discharge summary
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) defines the principal
diagnosis as the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning
,the admission of the patient to the hospital. Even if the pneumonia required more
resources, the AMI was the reason for admission. A common trap is selecting the most
resource-intensive condition, which is a criteria for DRG weight but not for principal
diagnosis selection.
4. Which of the following SQL statements would an HIM analyst use to retrieve all patients
from the ‘Patients’ table who were discharged in the year 2023?
A. GET * FROM Patients WHERE DischargeDate = 2023
B. SELECT PatientID FROM Patients IF Date = 2023
C. SELECT * FROM Patients WHERE DischargeDate LIKE ‘%2023%’
D. FIND Patients WHERE Year(DischargeDate) IS 2023
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The SELECT statement is the standard SQL command for retrieving data, and
the LIKE operator with wildcards allows for pattern matching within dates or strings.
Standard SQL syntax requires SELECT, FROM, and WHERE clauses. Examinees often choose
‘GET’ or ‘FIND’ because they sound like natural language, but these are not valid SQL
keywords for data retrieval.
5. A health information technician is performing a quantitative analysis of a discharged
patient’s record. Which of the following would be flagged as a deficiency?
A. The patient’s history is missing the name of their primary care physician.
B. The discharge summary is not signed by the attending physician.
, C. A progress note contains a medical abbreviation not on the approved list.
D. The coder assigned an incorrect ICD-10-CM code.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Quantitative analysis focuses on the presence or absence of required
documentation and signatures (completeness). An unsigned discharge summary is a classic
completeness deficiency. A common trap is confusing quantitative analysis with qualitative
analysis, which would involve checking for abbreviations (C) or coding accuracy (D).
6. A researcher requests access to PHI for a study but does not have patient authorization.
Under what condition can the Privacy Officer grant access?
A. If the researcher pays a processing fee.
B. If the researcher is a physician at the same facility.
C. If the Institutional Review Board (IRB) grants a waiver of authorization.
D. Access can never be granted without patient authorization.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: HIPAA allows for the use of PHI in research without authorization if an IRB
or Privacy Board approves a waiver based on specific criteria (e.g., the research involves
minimal risk). This ensures that critical health research can proceed while maintaining
privacy safeguards. A common trap is believing that being a staff physician (C)
automatically grants access for research purposes, which it does not.
Coding, Information Technology, Compliance and
Revenue Cycle
1. A hospital is reviewing its Charge Description Master (CDM) and finds several items with
outdated CPT codes. Which department should the HIM director collaborate with primarily to
ensure these codes are updated for accurate billing?
A. Patient Financial Services/Finance
B. Human Resources
C. Medical Staff Office
D. Facilities Management
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The CDM is a critical link between clinical services and the billing system,
directly impacting the revenue cycle. Collaborative efforts between HIM and Patient
Financial Services ensure that the data mapping between clinical documentation and
financial reimbursement is accurate. A common trap is assuming the Medical Staff Office
handles coding updates, when their focus is actually on provider credentialing.
2. An HIM manager is evaluating the hospital’s database and notices that the ‘Patient_Name’
field contains entries like ‘John Smith’, ‘Smith, John’, and ‘J. Smith’. Which data quality
characteristic is being violated?
A. Data Currency
,B. Data Granularity
C. Data Timeliness
D. Data Consistency
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Data consistency refers to the reliability and uniformity of data across
various applications and systems. When naming conventions are not standardized, it leads
to difficulties in data retrieval and patient matching. Examinees often confuse consistency
with granularity, which refers to the level of detail (e.g., street address vs. city) rather than
the format of the information.
3. A patient is admitted for an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). During the stay, the patient
develops hospital-acquired pneumonia. According to UHDDS guidelines, what is the principal
diagnosis?
A. Hospital-acquired pneumonia
B. Acute myocardial infarction
C. The condition that required the most resources
D. The first condition listed on the discharge summary
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) defines the principal
diagnosis as the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning
,the admission of the patient to the hospital. Even if the pneumonia required more
resources, the AMI was the reason for admission. A common trap is selecting the most
resource-intensive condition, which is a criteria for DRG weight but not for principal
diagnosis selection.
4. Which of the following SQL statements would an HIM analyst use to retrieve all patients
from the ‘Patients’ table who were discharged in the year 2023?
A. GET * FROM Patients WHERE DischargeDate = 2023
B. SELECT PatientID FROM Patients IF Date = 2023
C. SELECT * FROM Patients WHERE DischargeDate LIKE ‘%2023%’
D. FIND Patients WHERE Year(DischargeDate) IS 2023
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The SELECT statement is the standard SQL command for retrieving data, and
the LIKE operator with wildcards allows for pattern matching within dates or strings.
Standard SQL syntax requires SELECT, FROM, and WHERE clauses. Examinees often choose
‘GET’ or ‘FIND’ because they sound like natural language, but these are not valid SQL
keywords for data retrieval.
5. A health information technician is performing a quantitative analysis of a discharged
patient’s record. Which of the following would be flagged as a deficiency?
A. The patient’s history is missing the name of their primary care physician.
B. The discharge summary is not signed by the attending physician.
, C. A progress note contains a medical abbreviation not on the approved list.
D. The coder assigned an incorrect ICD-10-CM code.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Quantitative analysis focuses on the presence or absence of required
documentation and signatures (completeness). An unsigned discharge summary is a classic
completeness deficiency. A common trap is confusing quantitative analysis with qualitative
analysis, which would involve checking for abbreviations (C) or coding accuracy (D).
6. A researcher requests access to PHI for a study but does not have patient authorization.
Under what condition can the Privacy Officer grant access?
A. If the researcher pays a processing fee.
B. If the researcher is a physician at the same facility.
C. If the Institutional Review Board (IRB) grants a waiver of authorization.
D. Access can never be granted without patient authorization.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: HIPAA allows for the use of PHI in research without authorization if an IRB
or Privacy Board approves a waiver based on specific criteria (e.g., the research involves
minimal risk). This ensures that critical health research can proceed while maintaining
privacy safeguards. A common trap is believing that being a staff physician (C)
automatically grants access for research purposes, which it does not.
