R ASMU SSE N U N I VE R SI TY
E XA M 2 S T U DY G U IDE
NUR 2356: Multidimensional Care I /
MDC 1 | Review Questions with Verified
Answers
Course: NUR 2356 (Latest Update 2026 /
2027)
Total Questions: 100 Multiple Choice
Format: 4 Options (A-D), One Correct
Answer
Sections: 9 Nursing Domains + Integrated
Scenarios
Verification: 100% Correct | Grade A
Rationales
Acad emic Year 2 02 6 - 2 02 7
, NUR 2356: Multidimensional Care I / MDC 1
Exam 2 Study Guide | 100 Review Questions with Verified Answers
Section 1: Health Promotion, Disease Prevention, and Immunizations
Q1:
A nurse at a Rasmussen University affiliated clinic is providing health promotion
education to a 52-year-old patient. The patient asks what the difference is between health
promotion and disease prevention. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. A. Health promotion and disease prevention are identical terms that both focus on
illness treatment
B. B. Health promotion activities help maintain or enhance health, while disease prevention aims to reduce the
risk of disease [CORRECT]
C. C. Disease prevention is only relevant for patients with chronic conditions, while health
promotion is for healthy individuals
D. D. Health promotion focuses solely on immunizations, while disease prevention includes
lifestyle modifications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Health promotion includes activities that help individuals maintain or enhance health through
lifestyle modifications, health screenings, and education, whereas disease prevention includes
activities aimed at reducing the risk of disease at primary, secondary, and tertiary levels per the
2026-2027 Rasmussen NUR 2356 curriculum. They are not identical; health promotion is broader
and focuses on wellness, while disease prevention targets specific risks. Disease prevention is
relevant for all patients, not just those with chronic conditions. Health promotion encompasses
far more than just immunizations, including diet, exercise, and stress management.
Q2:
A community health nurse is conducting a health screening event. Which activity
represents secondary disease prevention rather than primary or tertiary prevention?
A. A. Administering the influenza vaccine to older adults at a senior center
B. B. Performing a mammogram on a 58-year-old woman to detect early breast cancer [CORRECT]
C. C. Teaching a patient with diabetes how to prevent foot ulcers and monitor blood
glucose
D. D. Counseling an adolescent on smoking cessation before tobacco use begins
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt treatment of disease, and a
mammogram is a classic screening tool for early breast cancer detection per Rasmussen
guidelines. Administering influenza vaccine is primary prevention (preventing disease before it
occurs). Teaching a diabetic patient foot care is tertiary prevention (minimizing complications of
existing disease). Counseling an adolescent on smoking cessation before tobacco use begins is
primary prevention.
Q3:
A nursing student is reviewing modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors for
cardiovascular disease. Which of the following is classified as a modifiable risk factor?
A. A. Family history of myocardial infarction
B. B. Age greater than 65 years
C. C. Sedentary lifestyle and high dietary sodium intake [CORRECT]
D. D. Gender (male sex)
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Modifiable risk factors are those that can be changed through behavioral or medical
interventions, and sedentary lifestyle with high sodium intake are classic modifiable risk factors
for cardiovascular disease emphasized in the NUR 2356 curriculum. Family history, age, and
gender are non-modifiable risk factors because they cannot be altered. The nurse should focus
patient education on modifying controllable factors such as diet, exercise, smoking cessation, and
alcohol reduction.
Q4:
An older adult patient asks the nurse which immunizations are recommended for their
age group according to the CDC and the 2026-2027 Rasmussen curriculum. Which set of
immunizations should the nurse include in the response?
A. A. DTaP only, as it provides the most comprehensive protection for older adults
B. B. Influenza, Pneumococcal (PPSV23), Shingles (recombinant zoster), and Tdap/Td [CORRECT]
C. C. MMR, HPV, and Hepatitis B only
D. D. No immunizations are recommended after age 65
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The CDC and Rasmussen NUR 2356 curriculum recommend that older adults receive annual
influenza vaccination, pneumococcal vaccination (PPSV23), shingles vaccination (recombinant
zoster vaccine is preferred over Zostavax per current guidelines), and a Tdap or Td booster every
10 years. DTaP is for children under 7; adults receive Tdap/Td. MMR and HPV are not specifically
age-targeted for older adults. Immunizations remain critically important throughout the lifespan,
especially for older adults who are at increased risk for complications from vaccine-preventable
diseases.
Q5:
A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the parent of a 2-month-old infant during a
well-child visit. Which health promotion activity is most appropriate for this age?
A. A. Recommending annual cholesterol screening
B. B. Encouraging breastfeeding and administering scheduled immunizations [CORRECT]
C. C. Discussing smoking cessation and alcohol moderation
D. D. Scheduling a colonoscopy for cancer screening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
For infancy, the key health promotion activities include breastfeeding support (breast milk
provides optimal nutrition and passive immunity) and administration of scheduled immunizations
per the CDC childhood immunization schedule, which are core NUR 2356 competencies.
Cholesterol screening is for adults. Smoking and alcohol counseling is for adolescents and adults.
Colonoscopy screening begins at age 45. Each developmental stage has specific health promotion
priorities, and infancy centers on nutrition, immunizations, and developmental monitoring.
Q6:
A 48-year-old female patient is discussing cancer screening recommendations with the
nurse. According to current 2026-2027 guidelines used in the Rasmussen curriculum,
when should colorectal cancer screening begin for this patient?
A. A. At age 40, regardless of risk factors
B. B. At age 45, which is the current recommended starting age for average-risk adults [CORRECT]
C. C. At age 50, as this has been the historical standard
D. D. Only if she has a family history of colorectal cancer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
, Current screening guidelines recommend beginning colorectal cancer screening at age 45 for
average-risk adults, updated from the previous recommendation of age 50. This is a key screening
recommendation that nursing students must know for the Rasmussen NUR 2356 Exam 2.
Screening at age 40 is not the current standard for average-risk patients. While the historical
standard was 50, it has been updated to 45. Screening should not be delayed until family history
is present; it is recommended for all average-risk adults at 45.
Q7:
A nursing student is learning about how vaccines provide immunity. Which mechanism
best describes how vaccines work to protect against disease?
A. A. Vaccines directly kill pathogens that enter the body
B. B. Vaccines provide passive immunity through direct antibody transfer
C. C. Vaccines stimulate the body to produce its own antibodies through exposure to weakened or inactivated
antigens [CORRECT]
D. D. Vaccines eliminate the need for any future immune response
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Vaccines work by the principle of active immunity via antibody production, exposing the body to
weakened, inactivated, or component antigens that stimulate the immune system to produce its
own antibodies and memory cells without causing the actual disease per Rasmussen NUR 2356
curriculum. Vaccines do not directly kill pathogens; that is the role of the immune response they
stimulate. Vaccines provide active, not passive, immunity. Vaccines do not eliminate the need for
future immune responses; rather, they prime the immune system for faster and more effective
responses upon future exposure.
Q8:
A nurse is conducting a health assessment on an adolescent patient. Which health
promotion activity is most developmentally appropriate for this age group according to
the Rasmussen curriculum?
A. A. Fall prevention and medication management education
B. B. Health screenings, mental health assessment, and sexual health education [CORRECT]
C. C. Breastfeeding support and well-child immunizations
D. D. Colorectal cancer screening and cholesterol management
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Adolescence health promotion priorities include health screenings (vision, hearing, scoliosis),
mental health assessment (depression, anxiety, suicide risk screening), and sexual health
education (STI prevention, contraception) per the NUR 2356 curriculum. Fall prevention and
medication management are priorities for older adults. Breastfeeding and immunizations are
priorities for infancy. Colorectal and cholesterol screenings are for adults starting at ages 45 and
20 respectively. Each life stage has specific health promotion needs based on developmental and
epidemiological factors.
Q9:
A nurse is providing tertiary prevention education to a patient who has recently been
diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which intervention best represents tertiary prevention?
A. A. Administering the pneumococcal vaccine to prevent pneumonia
B. B. Teaching the patient proper foot care, blood glucose monitoring, and dietary management to prevent
complications [CORRECT]
C. C. Recommending regular exercise to prevent the onset of diabetes
D. D. Performing a fasting blood glucose test to detect early diabetes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
E XA M 2 S T U DY G U IDE
NUR 2356: Multidimensional Care I /
MDC 1 | Review Questions with Verified
Answers
Course: NUR 2356 (Latest Update 2026 /
2027)
Total Questions: 100 Multiple Choice
Format: 4 Options (A-D), One Correct
Answer
Sections: 9 Nursing Domains + Integrated
Scenarios
Verification: 100% Correct | Grade A
Rationales
Acad emic Year 2 02 6 - 2 02 7
, NUR 2356: Multidimensional Care I / MDC 1
Exam 2 Study Guide | 100 Review Questions with Verified Answers
Section 1: Health Promotion, Disease Prevention, and Immunizations
Q1:
A nurse at a Rasmussen University affiliated clinic is providing health promotion
education to a 52-year-old patient. The patient asks what the difference is between health
promotion and disease prevention. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. A. Health promotion and disease prevention are identical terms that both focus on
illness treatment
B. B. Health promotion activities help maintain or enhance health, while disease prevention aims to reduce the
risk of disease [CORRECT]
C. C. Disease prevention is only relevant for patients with chronic conditions, while health
promotion is for healthy individuals
D. D. Health promotion focuses solely on immunizations, while disease prevention includes
lifestyle modifications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Health promotion includes activities that help individuals maintain or enhance health through
lifestyle modifications, health screenings, and education, whereas disease prevention includes
activities aimed at reducing the risk of disease at primary, secondary, and tertiary levels per the
2026-2027 Rasmussen NUR 2356 curriculum. They are not identical; health promotion is broader
and focuses on wellness, while disease prevention targets specific risks. Disease prevention is
relevant for all patients, not just those with chronic conditions. Health promotion encompasses
far more than just immunizations, including diet, exercise, and stress management.
Q2:
A community health nurse is conducting a health screening event. Which activity
represents secondary disease prevention rather than primary or tertiary prevention?
A. A. Administering the influenza vaccine to older adults at a senior center
B. B. Performing a mammogram on a 58-year-old woman to detect early breast cancer [CORRECT]
C. C. Teaching a patient with diabetes how to prevent foot ulcers and monitor blood
glucose
D. D. Counseling an adolescent on smoking cessation before tobacco use begins
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt treatment of disease, and a
mammogram is a classic screening tool for early breast cancer detection per Rasmussen
guidelines. Administering influenza vaccine is primary prevention (preventing disease before it
occurs). Teaching a diabetic patient foot care is tertiary prevention (minimizing complications of
existing disease). Counseling an adolescent on smoking cessation before tobacco use begins is
primary prevention.
Q3:
A nursing student is reviewing modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors for
cardiovascular disease. Which of the following is classified as a modifiable risk factor?
A. A. Family history of myocardial infarction
B. B. Age greater than 65 years
C. C. Sedentary lifestyle and high dietary sodium intake [CORRECT]
D. D. Gender (male sex)
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Modifiable risk factors are those that can be changed through behavioral or medical
interventions, and sedentary lifestyle with high sodium intake are classic modifiable risk factors
for cardiovascular disease emphasized in the NUR 2356 curriculum. Family history, age, and
gender are non-modifiable risk factors because they cannot be altered. The nurse should focus
patient education on modifying controllable factors such as diet, exercise, smoking cessation, and
alcohol reduction.
Q4:
An older adult patient asks the nurse which immunizations are recommended for their
age group according to the CDC and the 2026-2027 Rasmussen curriculum. Which set of
immunizations should the nurse include in the response?
A. A. DTaP only, as it provides the most comprehensive protection for older adults
B. B. Influenza, Pneumococcal (PPSV23), Shingles (recombinant zoster), and Tdap/Td [CORRECT]
C. C. MMR, HPV, and Hepatitis B only
D. D. No immunizations are recommended after age 65
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The CDC and Rasmussen NUR 2356 curriculum recommend that older adults receive annual
influenza vaccination, pneumococcal vaccination (PPSV23), shingles vaccination (recombinant
zoster vaccine is preferred over Zostavax per current guidelines), and a Tdap or Td booster every
10 years. DTaP is for children under 7; adults receive Tdap/Td. MMR and HPV are not specifically
age-targeted for older adults. Immunizations remain critically important throughout the lifespan,
especially for older adults who are at increased risk for complications from vaccine-preventable
diseases.
Q5:
A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the parent of a 2-month-old infant during a
well-child visit. Which health promotion activity is most appropriate for this age?
A. A. Recommending annual cholesterol screening
B. B. Encouraging breastfeeding and administering scheduled immunizations [CORRECT]
C. C. Discussing smoking cessation and alcohol moderation
D. D. Scheduling a colonoscopy for cancer screening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
For infancy, the key health promotion activities include breastfeeding support (breast milk
provides optimal nutrition and passive immunity) and administration of scheduled immunizations
per the CDC childhood immunization schedule, which are core NUR 2356 competencies.
Cholesterol screening is for adults. Smoking and alcohol counseling is for adolescents and adults.
Colonoscopy screening begins at age 45. Each developmental stage has specific health promotion
priorities, and infancy centers on nutrition, immunizations, and developmental monitoring.
Q6:
A 48-year-old female patient is discussing cancer screening recommendations with the
nurse. According to current 2026-2027 guidelines used in the Rasmussen curriculum,
when should colorectal cancer screening begin for this patient?
A. A. At age 40, regardless of risk factors
B. B. At age 45, which is the current recommended starting age for average-risk adults [CORRECT]
C. C. At age 50, as this has been the historical standard
D. D. Only if she has a family history of colorectal cancer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
, Current screening guidelines recommend beginning colorectal cancer screening at age 45 for
average-risk adults, updated from the previous recommendation of age 50. This is a key screening
recommendation that nursing students must know for the Rasmussen NUR 2356 Exam 2.
Screening at age 40 is not the current standard for average-risk patients. While the historical
standard was 50, it has been updated to 45. Screening should not be delayed until family history
is present; it is recommended for all average-risk adults at 45.
Q7:
A nursing student is learning about how vaccines provide immunity. Which mechanism
best describes how vaccines work to protect against disease?
A. A. Vaccines directly kill pathogens that enter the body
B. B. Vaccines provide passive immunity through direct antibody transfer
C. C. Vaccines stimulate the body to produce its own antibodies through exposure to weakened or inactivated
antigens [CORRECT]
D. D. Vaccines eliminate the need for any future immune response
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Vaccines work by the principle of active immunity via antibody production, exposing the body to
weakened, inactivated, or component antigens that stimulate the immune system to produce its
own antibodies and memory cells without causing the actual disease per Rasmussen NUR 2356
curriculum. Vaccines do not directly kill pathogens; that is the role of the immune response they
stimulate. Vaccines provide active, not passive, immunity. Vaccines do not eliminate the need for
future immune responses; rather, they prime the immune system for faster and more effective
responses upon future exposure.
Q8:
A nurse is conducting a health assessment on an adolescent patient. Which health
promotion activity is most developmentally appropriate for this age group according to
the Rasmussen curriculum?
A. A. Fall prevention and medication management education
B. B. Health screenings, mental health assessment, and sexual health education [CORRECT]
C. C. Breastfeeding support and well-child immunizations
D. D. Colorectal cancer screening and cholesterol management
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Adolescence health promotion priorities include health screenings (vision, hearing, scoliosis),
mental health assessment (depression, anxiety, suicide risk screening), and sexual health
education (STI prevention, contraception) per the NUR 2356 curriculum. Fall prevention and
medication management are priorities for older adults. Breastfeeding and immunizations are
priorities for infancy. Colorectal and cholesterol screenings are for adults starting at ages 45 and
20 respectively. Each life stage has specific health promotion needs based on developmental and
epidemiological factors.
Q9:
A nurse is providing tertiary prevention education to a patient who has recently been
diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which intervention best represents tertiary prevention?
A. A. Administering the pneumococcal vaccine to prevent pneumonia
B. B. Teaching the patient proper foot care, blood glucose monitoring, and dietary management to prevent
complications [CORRECT]
C. C. Recommending regular exercise to prevent the onset of diabetes
D. D. Performing a fasting blood glucose test to detect early diabetes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
