WEST COAST EMT BLOCK EXAM #3
Updated Questions with Correct
Answers
Verified A+ Grade
1. A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic)
seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The
patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately,
and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the
MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport?
Select one:
A. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15.
B. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure.
C. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 years of age.
D. He is currently not prescribed any medications.
Answer D. He is currently not prescribed any medications.
Verified Explanation: A patient who has had a seizure but is not
currently taking anti-seizure medications is at a much higher risk
1/
13
, for recurrent seizures or developing status epilepticus. Even
though he appears alert now, this lack of prescribed seizure control
medication is the most concerning reason to recommend transport
for further evaluation.
2. A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible
for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:
Select one:
A. Has had a prior heart attack.
B. Has bleeding within the brain.
C. Has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score that is less than 8.
D. Is older than 60 years of age.
Answer B. Has bleeding within the brain.
Verified Explanation: Thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) medications work
by breaking down clots. If a patient has active bleeding within the
brain (an intracranial hemorrhage), administering a thrombolytic
would significantly increase the risk of fatal bleeding. This is an
absolute contraindication for this therapy.
3. A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is
2/
13
Updated Questions with Correct
Answers
Verified A+ Grade
1. A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic)
seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The
patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately,
and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the
MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport?
Select one:
A. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15.
B. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure.
C. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 years of age.
D. He is currently not prescribed any medications.
Answer D. He is currently not prescribed any medications.
Verified Explanation: A patient who has had a seizure but is not
currently taking anti-seizure medications is at a much higher risk
1/
13
, for recurrent seizures or developing status epilepticus. Even
though he appears alert now, this lack of prescribed seizure control
medication is the most concerning reason to recommend transport
for further evaluation.
2. A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible
for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:
Select one:
A. Has had a prior heart attack.
B. Has bleeding within the brain.
C. Has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score that is less than 8.
D. Is older than 60 years of age.
Answer B. Has bleeding within the brain.
Verified Explanation: Thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) medications work
by breaking down clots. If a patient has active bleeding within the
brain (an intracranial hemorrhage), administering a thrombolytic
would significantly increase the risk of fatal bleeding. This is an
absolute contraindication for this therapy.
3. A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is
2/
13
