Georgia (GA) Category 24 (Ornamental and Turf Pest Control) Certification Exam | Latest Verified Questions and Detailed Answers

1|Page




Georgia (GA) Category 24 (Ornamental and Turf
Pest Control) Certification Exam | Latest Verified
Questions and Detailed Answers
OVERVIEW DESCRIPTION:
This comprehensive set of multiple choice questions is designed for the Georgia Category
24 (Ornamental and Turf Pest Control) Exam, a state-administered commercial
certification examination administered by the Georgia Department of Agriculture. The
questions assess a candidate’s knowledge across the core areas of the exam: integrated
pest management (IPM) principles and action thresholds, identification of common turf
and ornamental pests (including weeds, insects, and diseases), cultural practices that
influence plant health and pest susceptibility, proper pesticide application and equipment
calibration, mitigation of drift and protection of environmental resources, and thorough
comprehension of pesticide labels and safety requirements.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following best defines Integrated Pest Management (IPM)?

A) Scheduled calendar-based pesticide applications regardless of pest presence
B) Use of a single highly effective insecticide for all pest problems

C) A decision-making process that combines cultural, biological, mechanical, and
chemical tools to manage pests economically and with minimal environmental risk

D) Elimination of all insects and weeds from the landscape using fumigants
CORRECT ANSWER: C) A decision-making process that combines cultural, biological,

mechanical, and chemical tools to manage pests economically and with minimal
environmental risk


EXPERT RATIONALE: IPM uses multiple tactics and applies pesticides only when
monitoring shows they are needed, not on a fixed schedule; it aims for suppression

below thresholds, not eradication.

,2|Page


QUESTION 2

In IPM, the “action threshold” is best described as the point at which:
A) All pesticide applications must stop

B) A pest population reaches a level where control measures are justified to prevent
unacceptable damage

C) The first individual pest is observed
D) The cost of control exceeds the value of the crop

CORRECT ANSWER: B) A pest population reaches a level where control measures are
justified to prevent unacceptable damage


EXPERT RATIONALE: Action thresholds trigger management actions based on pest
density, economics, and plant tolerance; they prevent unnecessary pesticide use.


QUESTION 3
Which is an example of a cultural control practice for reducing disease in turfgrass?

A) Applying a broad-spectrum fungicide every 14 days
B) Releasing predatory mites

C) Mowing at the recommended height and removing clippings during active disease
D) Using a granular spreader instead of a sprayer
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Mowing at the recommended height and removing clippings
during active disease


EXPERT RATIONALE: Cultural methods manipulate the environment to suppress pests;
proper mowing height reduces stress and clippings can harbor pathogens.


QUESTION 4
Which statement about biological control in ornamentals is correct?

A) Biological control agents are always insects
B) Biological control replaces the need for monitoring

,3|Page


C) Conserving natural enemies by reducing broad-spectrum insecticide use is a form of

biological control
D) Biological control provides immediate knockdown of large pest populations

CORRECT ANSWER: C) Conserving natural enemies by reducing broad-spectrum
insecticide use is a form of biological control


EXPERT RATIONALE: Biological control includes conservation of predators and
parasitoids; it is enhanced by selective insecticides and habitat manipulation.


QUESTION 5
A key difference between a “Danger” and a “Warning” signal word on a pesticide label

is:
A) Danger indicates a product is not restricted-use; Warning always is

B) Danger indicates higher acute toxicity than Warning
C) Warning is used only for eye hazards

D) Danger and Warning are interchangeable depending on formulation
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Danger indicates higher acute toxicity than Warning


EXPERT RATIONALE: Signal words reflect acute hazards; Danger (with skull/crossbones)
denotes high toxicity, Warning moderate, Caution low.


QUESTION 6
According to the label, the Restricted Entry Interval (REI) is the time after application

when:
A) The treated area must be watered in

B) Only the applicator may enter the area
C) Entry into the treated area without required PPE is prohibited

D) Re-application can occur
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Entry into the treated area without required PPE is prohibited

, 4|Page


EXPERT RATIONALE: The REI protects workers from exposure; only workers with proper

PPE may enter earlier for specific tasks if allowed by the label.

QUESTION 7

What does the “Directions for Use” section of a pesticide label legally require?
A) The applicator may use the product on any site listed at double the labeled rate

B) It is a legal document; application must follow all use directions, rates, and sites
specified

C) It is a suggestion, and deviations are allowed if no injury occurs
D) Only the mix rate must be followed; all other information is advisory

CORRECT ANSWER: B) It is a legal document; application must follow all use directions,
rates, and sites specified


EXPERT RATIONALE: The label is the law; any use inconsistent with the label, including
lower rates on a non-listed site, is a violation.


QUESTION 8
In a pesticide formulation code such as “80 WDG,” the letters WDG stand for:

A) Water-diluted granular
B) Wettable dispersible granule
C) Water-dispersible granule
D) Wettable dust granule

CORRECT ANSWER: C) Water-dispersible granule

EXPERT RATIONALE: WDG formulations are dry granules that disperse and suspend in

water, offering ease of measuring and reduced dust compared to wettable powders.

QUESTION 9
Which nozzle type is best suited for applying a broadcast herbicide to turf while