BSN Pharmacology Examination
Practice Questions & [Verified
Answers], Plus Explained
Rationales|2026 Latest Update| Instant
Download PDF
Question 1
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which assessment
finding should the nurse recognize as a potentially serious adverse
effect requiring immediate attention?
A. Mild headache
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Swelling of the lips and tongue
D. Increased urinary frequency
Answer: C. Swelling of the lips and tongue
Rationale: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as
lisinopril can cause angioedema, which may rapidly compromise the
airway. Facial, lip, tongue, or throat swelling requires immediate
intervention. A persistent dry cough is common with ACE inhibitors
but is generally not an emergency.
Question 2
1|Page
,A client taking warfarin is scheduled for laboratory monitoring. Which
laboratory test is most important for evaluating the therapeutic effect
of warfarin?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Serum creatinine
Answer: B. INR
Rationale: The international normalized ratio (INR) is used to monitor
the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and guide dosage adjustments.
The aPTT is primarily used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. The client's
apical pulse is 54 beats/minute. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed
B. Administer half the prescribed dose
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
D. Give the medication with an antacid
Answer: C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia and other cardiac
dysrhythmias. A significantly low apical pulse should prompt the nurse
to withhold the medication and follow the prescribed parameters or
notify the provider.
Question 4
2|Page
,A client receiving furosemide reports muscle weakness and leg cramps.
Which laboratory abnormality should the nurse suspect?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary
excretion of potassium. Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness,
cramps, and potentially dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 5
A client receiving insulin develops diaphoresis, tremors, confusion, and
tachycardia. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer additional insulin
B. Check the client's blood glucose level
C. Encourage the client to exercise
D. Restrict oral fluids
Answer: B. Check the client's blood glucose level
Rationale: Diaphoresis, tremors, tachycardia, and confusion are classic
manifestations of hypoglycemia. Blood glucose should be assessed
promptly, followed by appropriate treatment based on the client's
condition and ability to swallow.
Question 6
Which insulin has the most rapid onset of action?
3|Page
, A. Glargine
B. Lispro
C. NPH
D. Detemir
Answer: B. Lispro
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin. It begins working
quickly and is generally administered in relation to meals. Glargine
and detemir are long-acting preparations, while NPH is intermediate-
acting.
Question 7
A client taking metformin is scheduled for a radiographic procedure
involving iodinated contrast. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Give metformin immediately before the procedure
B. Verify whether metformin should be temporarily withheld
C. Double the metformin dose after the procedure
D. Substitute insulin without an order
Answer: B. Verify whether metformin should be temporarily withheld
Rationale: Metformin may need to be temporarily withheld around
iodinated contrast administration in certain clients because of the risk
of contrast-associated kidney injury and metformin-associated lactic
acidosis. Renal function and current guidelines should be considered.
Question 8
4|Page
Practice Questions & [Verified
Answers], Plus Explained
Rationales|2026 Latest Update| Instant
Download PDF
Question 1
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which assessment
finding should the nurse recognize as a potentially serious adverse
effect requiring immediate attention?
A. Mild headache
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Swelling of the lips and tongue
D. Increased urinary frequency
Answer: C. Swelling of the lips and tongue
Rationale: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as
lisinopril can cause angioedema, which may rapidly compromise the
airway. Facial, lip, tongue, or throat swelling requires immediate
intervention. A persistent dry cough is common with ACE inhibitors
but is generally not an emergency.
Question 2
1|Page
,A client taking warfarin is scheduled for laboratory monitoring. Which
laboratory test is most important for evaluating the therapeutic effect
of warfarin?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Serum creatinine
Answer: B. INR
Rationale: The international normalized ratio (INR) is used to monitor
the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and guide dosage adjustments.
The aPTT is primarily used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. The client's
apical pulse is 54 beats/minute. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed
B. Administer half the prescribed dose
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
D. Give the medication with an antacid
Answer: C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia and other cardiac
dysrhythmias. A significantly low apical pulse should prompt the nurse
to withhold the medication and follow the prescribed parameters or
notify the provider.
Question 4
2|Page
,A client receiving furosemide reports muscle weakness and leg cramps.
Which laboratory abnormality should the nurse suspect?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary
excretion of potassium. Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness,
cramps, and potentially dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 5
A client receiving insulin develops diaphoresis, tremors, confusion, and
tachycardia. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer additional insulin
B. Check the client's blood glucose level
C. Encourage the client to exercise
D. Restrict oral fluids
Answer: B. Check the client's blood glucose level
Rationale: Diaphoresis, tremors, tachycardia, and confusion are classic
manifestations of hypoglycemia. Blood glucose should be assessed
promptly, followed by appropriate treatment based on the client's
condition and ability to swallow.
Question 6
Which insulin has the most rapid onset of action?
3|Page
, A. Glargine
B. Lispro
C. NPH
D. Detemir
Answer: B. Lispro
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin. It begins working
quickly and is generally administered in relation to meals. Glargine
and detemir are long-acting preparations, while NPH is intermediate-
acting.
Question 7
A client taking metformin is scheduled for a radiographic procedure
involving iodinated contrast. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Give metformin immediately before the procedure
B. Verify whether metformin should be temporarily withheld
C. Double the metformin dose after the procedure
D. Substitute insulin without an order
Answer: B. Verify whether metformin should be temporarily withheld
Rationale: Metformin may need to be temporarily withheld around
iodinated contrast administration in certain clients because of the risk
of contrast-associated kidney injury and metformin-associated lactic
acidosis. Renal function and current guidelines should be considered.
Question 8
4|Page
