Newest Digital ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam
2026 – Level 3 (NGN Style) CQuestion Practice Exam
with ANSWER💕✔ & Rationale for Every Option
CARDIOVASCULAR PHARMACOLOGY
Question 1
A client taking digoxin reports nausea and seeing yellow‑green halos. Apical pulse is 52/min. Which is
the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer the scheduled dose
B. Hold the digoxin and obtain digoxin and potassium levels
C. Give a PRN antiemetic
D. Document the findings as expected
ANSWER💕✔: B
A – Incorrect: giving another dose worsens potentially life‑threatening toxicity.
B – Correct: nausea, halos, and bradycardia indicate digoxin toxicity; hypokalemia potentiates it, so hold
the dose and check digoxin + K⁺ levels.
C – Incorrect: an antiemetic masks the symptom without treating the cause.
D – Incorrect: these are toxic, not expected, findings.
Question 2
Which serum digoxin result should the nurse report?
A. 0.8 ng/mL
B. 1.2 ng/mL
C. 2.6 ng/mL
D. 0.5 ng/mL
ANSWER💕✔: C
A – Incorrect: 0.8 is within the 0.5–2.0 ng/mL therapeutic range.
,B – Incorrect: 1.2 is therapeutic.
C – Correct: >2.0 ng/mL is toxic and must be reported.
D – Incorrect: 0.5 is the low end of therapeutic, not toxic.
Question 3
The nurse teaches a client taking metoprolol. Which statement shows understanding?
A. "I will take my pulse daily and hold the pill if it is under 60."
B. "I can stop this drug suddenly if I feel well."
C. "This medication will increase my heart rate."
D. "I should take it on an empty stomach for absorption."
ANSWER💕✔: A
A – Correct: beta blockers cause bradycardia; hold and report if pulse <60/min.
B – Incorrect: abrupt stop causes rebound hypertension/tachycardia and angina.
C – Incorrect: it lowers heart rate and blood pressure.
D – Incorrect: metoprolol is taken with or just after food.
Question 4
A client on lisinopril should be monitored for which adverse effects? (Select the combination the nurse
should expect.)
A. Dry cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema
B. Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
C. Gingival hyperplasia and peripheral edema
D. Reflex tachycardia and hirsutism
ANSWER💕✔: A
A – Correct: ACE inhibitors cause cough, K⁺ retention, and angioedema.
B – Incorrect: that pattern fits loop/thiazide diuretics.
C – Incorrect: those are calcium channel blocker effects.
D – Incorrect: those are seen with minoxidil/hydralazine‑type agents.
Question 5
Which finding requires immediate intervention for a client taking losartan?
A. Potassium 5.6 mEq/L
,B. Blood pressure 128/78
C. Facial swelling and difficulty swallowing
D. Mild dizziness on standing
ANSWER💕✔: C
A – Incorrect: mild hyperkalemia is expected; monitor, not emergency.
B – Incorrect: this is the goal of therapy.
C – Correct: angioedema is a life‑threatening ACE/ARB reaction.
D – Incorrect: mild orthostasis is common and managed with teaching.
Question 6
The nurse teaches a client taking amlodipine. Which statements are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. Ankle swelling is a known side effect.
B. Avoid grapefruit juice.
C. Gum overgrowth may occur; maintain dental care.
D. Stop the drug if a rash appears on the chest.
E. Take the dose with a high‑fat meal to boost effect.
ANSWER💕✔: A, B, C
A – Correct: peripheral edema is classic with dihydropyridines.
B – Correct: grapefruit inhibits metabolism and raises levels.
C – Correct: gingival hyperplasia is a CCB effect.
D – Incorrect: rash is not an expected stop‑drug sign here.
E – Incorrect: food does not need to be high‑fat; take consistently.
Question 7
A client receiving IV furosemide reports ringing in the ears. The nurse recognizes this as:
A. An expected finding
B. Ototoxicity from rapid infusion/high dose
C. An allergic reaction
D. Hypokalemia
ANSWER💕✔: B
A – Incorrect: tinnitus is never "expected."
, B – Correct: loop diuretics cause dose/rate‑related ototoxicity.
C – Incorrect: no urticaria or airway signs are described.
D – Incorrect: hypokalemia causes cramps/weakness, not tinnitus.
Question 8
Which laboratory finding is most expected with spironolactone?
A. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
C. Calcium 7.9 mg/dL
D. Sodium 145 mEq/L
ANSWER💕✔: A
A – Correct: K⁺‑sparing diuretics cause hyperkalemia.
B – Incorrect: hypokalemia occurs with loops/thiazides.
C – Incorrect: spironolactone does not typically lower calcium.
D – Incorrect: it tends to cause hyponatremia, not high‑normal sodium.
Question 9
A client on hydrochlorothiazide should be watched for which cluster of effects?
A. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia
B. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, hypouricemia
C. Hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, acidosis
D. Hypocalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, gout relief
ANSWER💕✔: A
A – Correct: thiazides waste K⁺, raise glucose and uric acid.
B – Incorrect: the opposite pattern.
C – Incorrect: thiazides cause alkalosis and raise (not lower) calcium… but the cluster in C mixes errors;
the classic triad is A.
D – Incorrect: thiazides raise calcium and can trigger gout.
Question 10
Warfarin teaching is effective when the client states:
A. "I will keep my leafy‑green intake consistent."
2026 – Level 3 (NGN Style) CQuestion Practice Exam
with ANSWER💕✔ & Rationale for Every Option
CARDIOVASCULAR PHARMACOLOGY
Question 1
A client taking digoxin reports nausea and seeing yellow‑green halos. Apical pulse is 52/min. Which is
the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer the scheduled dose
B. Hold the digoxin and obtain digoxin and potassium levels
C. Give a PRN antiemetic
D. Document the findings as expected
ANSWER💕✔: B
A – Incorrect: giving another dose worsens potentially life‑threatening toxicity.
B – Correct: nausea, halos, and bradycardia indicate digoxin toxicity; hypokalemia potentiates it, so hold
the dose and check digoxin + K⁺ levels.
C – Incorrect: an antiemetic masks the symptom without treating the cause.
D – Incorrect: these are toxic, not expected, findings.
Question 2
Which serum digoxin result should the nurse report?
A. 0.8 ng/mL
B. 1.2 ng/mL
C. 2.6 ng/mL
D. 0.5 ng/mL
ANSWER💕✔: C
A – Incorrect: 0.8 is within the 0.5–2.0 ng/mL therapeutic range.
,B – Incorrect: 1.2 is therapeutic.
C – Correct: >2.0 ng/mL is toxic and must be reported.
D – Incorrect: 0.5 is the low end of therapeutic, not toxic.
Question 3
The nurse teaches a client taking metoprolol. Which statement shows understanding?
A. "I will take my pulse daily and hold the pill if it is under 60."
B. "I can stop this drug suddenly if I feel well."
C. "This medication will increase my heart rate."
D. "I should take it on an empty stomach for absorption."
ANSWER💕✔: A
A – Correct: beta blockers cause bradycardia; hold and report if pulse <60/min.
B – Incorrect: abrupt stop causes rebound hypertension/tachycardia and angina.
C – Incorrect: it lowers heart rate and blood pressure.
D – Incorrect: metoprolol is taken with or just after food.
Question 4
A client on lisinopril should be monitored for which adverse effects? (Select the combination the nurse
should expect.)
A. Dry cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema
B. Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
C. Gingival hyperplasia and peripheral edema
D. Reflex tachycardia and hirsutism
ANSWER💕✔: A
A – Correct: ACE inhibitors cause cough, K⁺ retention, and angioedema.
B – Incorrect: that pattern fits loop/thiazide diuretics.
C – Incorrect: those are calcium channel blocker effects.
D – Incorrect: those are seen with minoxidil/hydralazine‑type agents.
Question 5
Which finding requires immediate intervention for a client taking losartan?
A. Potassium 5.6 mEq/L
,B. Blood pressure 128/78
C. Facial swelling and difficulty swallowing
D. Mild dizziness on standing
ANSWER💕✔: C
A – Incorrect: mild hyperkalemia is expected; monitor, not emergency.
B – Incorrect: this is the goal of therapy.
C – Correct: angioedema is a life‑threatening ACE/ARB reaction.
D – Incorrect: mild orthostasis is common and managed with teaching.
Question 6
The nurse teaches a client taking amlodipine. Which statements are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. Ankle swelling is a known side effect.
B. Avoid grapefruit juice.
C. Gum overgrowth may occur; maintain dental care.
D. Stop the drug if a rash appears on the chest.
E. Take the dose with a high‑fat meal to boost effect.
ANSWER💕✔: A, B, C
A – Correct: peripheral edema is classic with dihydropyridines.
B – Correct: grapefruit inhibits metabolism and raises levels.
C – Correct: gingival hyperplasia is a CCB effect.
D – Incorrect: rash is not an expected stop‑drug sign here.
E – Incorrect: food does not need to be high‑fat; take consistently.
Question 7
A client receiving IV furosemide reports ringing in the ears. The nurse recognizes this as:
A. An expected finding
B. Ototoxicity from rapid infusion/high dose
C. An allergic reaction
D. Hypokalemia
ANSWER💕✔: B
A – Incorrect: tinnitus is never "expected."
, B – Correct: loop diuretics cause dose/rate‑related ototoxicity.
C – Incorrect: no urticaria or airway signs are described.
D – Incorrect: hypokalemia causes cramps/weakness, not tinnitus.
Question 8
Which laboratory finding is most expected with spironolactone?
A. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
C. Calcium 7.9 mg/dL
D. Sodium 145 mEq/L
ANSWER💕✔: A
A – Correct: K⁺‑sparing diuretics cause hyperkalemia.
B – Incorrect: hypokalemia occurs with loops/thiazides.
C – Incorrect: spironolactone does not typically lower calcium.
D – Incorrect: it tends to cause hyponatremia, not high‑normal sodium.
Question 9
A client on hydrochlorothiazide should be watched for which cluster of effects?
A. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia
B. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, hypouricemia
C. Hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, acidosis
D. Hypocalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, gout relief
ANSWER💕✔: A
A – Correct: thiazides waste K⁺, raise glucose and uric acid.
B – Incorrect: the opposite pattern.
C – Incorrect: thiazides cause alkalosis and raise (not lower) calcium… but the cluster in C mixes errors;
the classic triad is A.
D – Incorrect: thiazides raise calcium and can trigger gout.
Question 10
Warfarin teaching is effective when the client states:
A. "I will keep my leafy‑green intake consistent."
