BARKLEY FNP REVIEW EXAM - EXAMINATION COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND DETAILED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE
THIS YEAR JUST RELEASED
Question 1: Which pain medication will the nurse practitioner
prescribe for an 11-year-old patient with a fractured ulna?
A. Capsaicin topical cream
B. Hydrocodone-acetaminophen
C. Aspirin
D. Regular-strength acetaminophen
Answer:
Solution: D
Question 2: Regular-strength acetaminophen. Regular-strength
acetaminophen is the safest pain medication for a child <12 years.
Capsaicin topical cream provides temporary relief of muscle, joint,
and neuropathic pain. Aspirin contains salicylates and should not
be prescribed for children <12 years due to the risk of Reye's
syndrome. Hydrocodone-acetaminophen is not recommended
because of abuse potential. Heberden's nodes are commonly found
in which of the following diseases?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Degenerative joint disease
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Septic arthritis
Answer:
Solution: B
,Question 3: Degenerative joint disease. Heberden's nodes are bony
nodules on the distal interphalangeal joints, commonly seen in
degenerative joint disease. A 68-year-old female presents to the
clinic complaining of increasing mid-back pain. Her past medical
history is significant for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux
disease (GERD) and a vertebral compression fracture at T11 1 year
ago. An x-ray obtained during the encounter reveals a new
vertebral compression fracture at T12. Lab work reveals elevated
serum alkaline phosphatase. The nurse practitioner notes a 1-inch
decrease in the patient's height from the previous year. Which
medication will the nurse practitioner prescribe?
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
D. Ferrous sulfate
Answer:
Solution: A
Question 4: Alendronate (Fosamax). The patient is postmenopausal
with osteoporosis, which has led to vertebral compression
fractures. Gradual loss of bone density is common in
postmenopausal females secondary to estrogen deficiency.
Long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors to treat GERD is an
additional risk factor. Serum alkaline phosphate is elevated in bone
fractures. Vertebral compression fractures will cause the spine to
lose height. Osteoporosis is treated with bisphosphonates such as
alendronate (Fosamax). Supplemental calcium with vitamin D is
also recommended. Colchicine is used for an acute gout attack.
Allopurinol is used in the treatment of chronic gout. Ferrous sulfate
is an essential body mineral that is used to treat iron-deficiency
anemia. Question The nurse practitioner is assessing a 13-year-old
male who presents with back pain and nausea and vomiting for the
,past 24 hours. The patient reports feeling a dull pain and muscle
spasms in the back after a direct hit to the side during football
practice. His vital signs are blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg,
temperature of 99.1°F, pulse of 98 beats/minute, and respirations of
26 breaths/minute. Which diagnosis is most likely? Appendicitis
Bruised kidney Cholecystitis Ruptured vertebral disc
Answer:
Solution: B
Question 5: Bruised kidney. The findings (back pain and muscle
spasms, nausea with vomiting, and a direct hit to the side of the
body) indicate a potential bruised kidney. Appendicitis typically
begins with anorexia, nausea, and vomiting for the first 12 to 24
hours. Abdominal pain, a late sign, is usually diffuse at first and
gradually localizes to the right lower quadrant. Cholecystitis may
cause radiating pain to the back but would not be due to a direct hit
and would not manifest as muscle spasms. A ruptured vertebral
disc would manifest as pain and muscle spasm but without nausea
and vomiting. Podagra is associated with:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Gout
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Septic arthritis
Answer:
Solution: B
Question 6: Gout. Gout (also known as podagra when it involves
the big toe) is characterized by recurrent attacks of acute
inflammatory arthritis—a red, tender, hot, swollen joint. The
metatarsal-phalangeal joint at the base of the big toe is most
commonly affected (approximately 50% of cases). Pain occurs due
, to the accumulation of uric acid and salts in the joint. A 56-year-old
patient presents to the clinic with reports of right hip pain that
worsens after activity, decreased range of motion (ROM) of the
right hip, and difficulty getting up after sitting for long periods. The
nurse practitioner hears crepitus in the right hip upon movement.
Which condition is most likely?
A. Fracture of the right hip
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Medial tibial stress fracture
D. Osteoarthritis
Answer:
Solution: D
Question 7: Osteoarthritis. The patient's presentation is a classic
case of osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis of the hip is associated with
joint pain that worsens with activity, diminished ROM, joint
crepitus, and difficulty arising after long periods of rest. Patients
with hip fractures have severe pain in the hip or groin and are
unable to bear weight. The leg may also be externally rotated.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disorder that
presents with inflammation of multiple joints. A medial tibial stress
fracture is an injury of the lower extremity and presents with
inflammation of muscles, tendons, and bone tissue of the tibia.
hich of the following is a warning sign for scoliosis?
A. Raised right iliac crest
B. Thoracic kyphosis
C. Lumbar lordosis
D. Osteopenia
Answer:
Solution: A
QUESTIONS AND DETAILED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE
THIS YEAR JUST RELEASED
Question 1: Which pain medication will the nurse practitioner
prescribe for an 11-year-old patient with a fractured ulna?
A. Capsaicin topical cream
B. Hydrocodone-acetaminophen
C. Aspirin
D. Regular-strength acetaminophen
Answer:
Solution: D
Question 2: Regular-strength acetaminophen. Regular-strength
acetaminophen is the safest pain medication for a child <12 years.
Capsaicin topical cream provides temporary relief of muscle, joint,
and neuropathic pain. Aspirin contains salicylates and should not
be prescribed for children <12 years due to the risk of Reye's
syndrome. Hydrocodone-acetaminophen is not recommended
because of abuse potential. Heberden's nodes are commonly found
in which of the following diseases?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Degenerative joint disease
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Septic arthritis
Answer:
Solution: B
,Question 3: Degenerative joint disease. Heberden's nodes are bony
nodules on the distal interphalangeal joints, commonly seen in
degenerative joint disease. A 68-year-old female presents to the
clinic complaining of increasing mid-back pain. Her past medical
history is significant for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux
disease (GERD) and a vertebral compression fracture at T11 1 year
ago. An x-ray obtained during the encounter reveals a new
vertebral compression fracture at T12. Lab work reveals elevated
serum alkaline phosphatase. The nurse practitioner notes a 1-inch
decrease in the patient's height from the previous year. Which
medication will the nurse practitioner prescribe?
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
D. Ferrous sulfate
Answer:
Solution: A
Question 4: Alendronate (Fosamax). The patient is postmenopausal
with osteoporosis, which has led to vertebral compression
fractures. Gradual loss of bone density is common in
postmenopausal females secondary to estrogen deficiency.
Long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors to treat GERD is an
additional risk factor. Serum alkaline phosphate is elevated in bone
fractures. Vertebral compression fractures will cause the spine to
lose height. Osteoporosis is treated with bisphosphonates such as
alendronate (Fosamax). Supplemental calcium with vitamin D is
also recommended. Colchicine is used for an acute gout attack.
Allopurinol is used in the treatment of chronic gout. Ferrous sulfate
is an essential body mineral that is used to treat iron-deficiency
anemia. Question The nurse practitioner is assessing a 13-year-old
male who presents with back pain and nausea and vomiting for the
,past 24 hours. The patient reports feeling a dull pain and muscle
spasms in the back after a direct hit to the side during football
practice. His vital signs are blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg,
temperature of 99.1°F, pulse of 98 beats/minute, and respirations of
26 breaths/minute. Which diagnosis is most likely? Appendicitis
Bruised kidney Cholecystitis Ruptured vertebral disc
Answer:
Solution: B
Question 5: Bruised kidney. The findings (back pain and muscle
spasms, nausea with vomiting, and a direct hit to the side of the
body) indicate a potential bruised kidney. Appendicitis typically
begins with anorexia, nausea, and vomiting for the first 12 to 24
hours. Abdominal pain, a late sign, is usually diffuse at first and
gradually localizes to the right lower quadrant. Cholecystitis may
cause radiating pain to the back but would not be due to a direct hit
and would not manifest as muscle spasms. A ruptured vertebral
disc would manifest as pain and muscle spasm but without nausea
and vomiting. Podagra is associated with:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Gout
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Septic arthritis
Answer:
Solution: B
Question 6: Gout. Gout (also known as podagra when it involves
the big toe) is characterized by recurrent attacks of acute
inflammatory arthritis—a red, tender, hot, swollen joint. The
metatarsal-phalangeal joint at the base of the big toe is most
commonly affected (approximately 50% of cases). Pain occurs due
, to the accumulation of uric acid and salts in the joint. A 56-year-old
patient presents to the clinic with reports of right hip pain that
worsens after activity, decreased range of motion (ROM) of the
right hip, and difficulty getting up after sitting for long periods. The
nurse practitioner hears crepitus in the right hip upon movement.
Which condition is most likely?
A. Fracture of the right hip
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Medial tibial stress fracture
D. Osteoarthritis
Answer:
Solution: D
Question 7: Osteoarthritis. The patient's presentation is a classic
case of osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis of the hip is associated with
joint pain that worsens with activity, diminished ROM, joint
crepitus, and difficulty arising after long periods of rest. Patients
with hip fractures have severe pain in the hip or groin and are
unable to bear weight. The leg may also be externally rotated.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disorder that
presents with inflammation of multiple joints. A medial tibial stress
fracture is an injury of the lower extremity and presents with
inflammation of muscles, tendons, and bone tissue of the tibia.
hich of the following is a warning sign for scoliosis?
A. Raised right iliac crest
B. Thoracic kyphosis
C. Lumbar lordosis
D. Osteopenia
Answer:
Solution: A
