RELIAS ED RN A EXAM VERSION 2 COMPREHENSIVE
PRACTICE EXAM LATEST UPDATED ACTUAL FINAL
EXAM WITH ALL POSSIBLE MOST TESTED 100
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS FULLY SOLVED WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY 2026-2027
FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION 100% GUARANTEED
PASS MOST RECENT!!!
1. A 68-year-old male presents with sudden onset of
severe chest pain, diaphoresis, and nausea. ECG
shows ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V4. What is
the priority intervention?
A) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B) Obtain a chest X-ray
C) Activate the STEMI protocol and prepare for
percutaneous coronary intervention
D) Give oral aspirin 325 mg
Rationale: STEMI requires immediate reperfusion
,therapy. Activating the catheterization lab is the
priority. Aspirin and nitroglycerin are adjunctive
but do not replace reperfusion.
2. A 45-year-old female with a history of migraines
presents with sudden, severe “thunderclap”
headache. Vital signs: BP 190/110, HR 110. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A) Migraine with aura
B) Tension headache
C) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D) Sinusitis
Rationale: Thunderclap headache with
hypertension suggests aneurysmal subarachnoid
hemorrhage until proven otherwise. Immediate CT
head is indicated.
3. A patient arrives with a stab wound to the left
chest. Breath sounds are absent on the left, trachea
deviated to the right, and jugular venous distention
is present. What is the immediate action?
A) Insert a chest tube
B) Perform needle decompression
,C) Perform needle thoracostomy at the second
intercostal space, midclavicular line
D) Obtain a stat chest X-ray
Rationale: These signs indicate tension
pneumothorax. Needle decompression is the
emergency intervention before chest tube
placement.
4. A 30-year-old male with a history of asthma
presents with respiratory distress, wheezing, and
use of accessory muscles. Peak flow is 40% of
predicted. After albuterol nebulization, peak flow
improves to 55%. What is the next best action?
A) Discharge home with oral steroids
B) Admit for continued treatment and observation
C) Repeat albuterol every 20 minutes
D) Obtain arterial blood gases
Rationale: Failure to reach >60% predicted after
initial treatment indicates moderate-to-severe
exacerbation requiring admission.
5. A patient with suspected sepsis has a lactate level
of 4.2 mmol/L, BP 85/50, and HR 125. After
, initiating IV fluids, what is the next step in the sepsis
bundle?
A) Obtain blood cultures
B) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1
hour
C) Start vasopressors
D) Measure central venous pressure
Rationale: In septic shock, antibiotics should be
given within 1 hour of recognition. Blood cultures
should be drawn before antibiotics if possible, but
antibiotics are time-critical.
6. A 55-year-old diabetic presents with a red,
swollen, warm right foot with a foul-smelling ulcer.
What is the most appropriate antibiotic regimen?
A) Oral cephalexin
B) Vancomycin plus piperacillin-tazobactam
C) Azithromycin alone
D) Ciprofloxacin only
Rationale: Diabetic foot infections with systemic
signs require broad-spectrum coverage for MRSA,
gram-negatives, and anaerobes.
PRACTICE EXAM LATEST UPDATED ACTUAL FINAL
EXAM WITH ALL POSSIBLE MOST TESTED 100
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS FULLY SOLVED WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY 2026-2027
FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION 100% GUARANTEED
PASS MOST RECENT!!!
1. A 68-year-old male presents with sudden onset of
severe chest pain, diaphoresis, and nausea. ECG
shows ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V4. What is
the priority intervention?
A) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B) Obtain a chest X-ray
C) Activate the STEMI protocol and prepare for
percutaneous coronary intervention
D) Give oral aspirin 325 mg
Rationale: STEMI requires immediate reperfusion
,therapy. Activating the catheterization lab is the
priority. Aspirin and nitroglycerin are adjunctive
but do not replace reperfusion.
2. A 45-year-old female with a history of migraines
presents with sudden, severe “thunderclap”
headache. Vital signs: BP 190/110, HR 110. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A) Migraine with aura
B) Tension headache
C) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D) Sinusitis
Rationale: Thunderclap headache with
hypertension suggests aneurysmal subarachnoid
hemorrhage until proven otherwise. Immediate CT
head is indicated.
3. A patient arrives with a stab wound to the left
chest. Breath sounds are absent on the left, trachea
deviated to the right, and jugular venous distention
is present. What is the immediate action?
A) Insert a chest tube
B) Perform needle decompression
,C) Perform needle thoracostomy at the second
intercostal space, midclavicular line
D) Obtain a stat chest X-ray
Rationale: These signs indicate tension
pneumothorax. Needle decompression is the
emergency intervention before chest tube
placement.
4. A 30-year-old male with a history of asthma
presents with respiratory distress, wheezing, and
use of accessory muscles. Peak flow is 40% of
predicted. After albuterol nebulization, peak flow
improves to 55%. What is the next best action?
A) Discharge home with oral steroids
B) Admit for continued treatment and observation
C) Repeat albuterol every 20 minutes
D) Obtain arterial blood gases
Rationale: Failure to reach >60% predicted after
initial treatment indicates moderate-to-severe
exacerbation requiring admission.
5. A patient with suspected sepsis has a lactate level
of 4.2 mmol/L, BP 85/50, and HR 125. After
, initiating IV fluids, what is the next step in the sepsis
bundle?
A) Obtain blood cultures
B) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1
hour
C) Start vasopressors
D) Measure central venous pressure
Rationale: In septic shock, antibiotics should be
given within 1 hour of recognition. Blood cultures
should be drawn before antibiotics if possible, but
antibiotics are time-critical.
6. A 55-year-old diabetic presents with a red,
swollen, warm right foot with a foul-smelling ulcer.
What is the most appropriate antibiotic regimen?
A) Oral cephalexin
B) Vancomycin plus piperacillin-tazobactam
C) Azithromycin alone
D) Ciprofloxacin only
Rationale: Diabetic foot infections with systemic
signs require broad-spectrum coverage for MRSA,
gram-negatives, and anaerobes.
