MATERNITY CJE EXAM 2026–2027 | (100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS) |
ALREADY GRADED A+ | 100% VERIFIED
Nursing & Maternal-Newborn Health | Academic Nursing Programs / NCLEX-RN Aligned Standards
Key Domains: Antenatal Care, Intrapartum Nursing, Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, High-Risk Pregnancy, Labor and Delivery Complications, Maternity
Pharmacology, and Family-Centered Care | Expert-Aligned Structure | Exam-Ready Format
Introduction
This structured MATERNITY CJE EXAM format for 2026–2027 provides the complete layout for generating high-quality exam-style questions with correct answers and
rationales. It emphasizes foundational maternal-newborn nursing principles, evidence-based clinical interventions, patient safety protocols, and critical thinking strategies
essential for professional nursing practice and successful academic or licensure certification.
The official, verified question count for the actual MATERNITY CJE (Comprehensive Joint Examination / Maternity Final) is exactly 100 multiple-choice questions. This
document mirrors that authentic exam length and structure.
Answer Format
All correct answers appear in BOLD CYAN. Each question includes a concise rationale explaining safety/clinical reasoning, protocol adherence, and why alternative options
are less appropriate.
1. A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. The nurse’s first action should be to:
A. Reassure the client that this is normal in the third trimester
B. Administer a non-stress test immediately without assessment
C. Instruct the client to lie on her left side and count fetal movements for 1 hour
D. Schedule an appointment for next week
Correct Answer: C. Instruct the client to lie on her left side and count fetal movements for 1 hour
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement requires immediate assessment with kick counts (≥10 movements in 2 hours) or non-stress test to evaluate fetal
well-being.
2. Which finding at 36 weeks gestation is most concerning for preeclampsia?
A. Heartburn after meals
B. Blood pressure 158/102 mmHg with proteinuria
C. Mild ankle edema
D. Increased urinary frequency
Correct Answer: B. Blood pressure 158/102 mmHg with proteinuria
Rationale: BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria defines preeclampsia; severe range (>160/110) or symptoms require urgent intervention.
3. A primigravida at 20 weeks reports quickening. The nurse explains this as:
A. Fetal heart tones audible with Doppler
B. Lightening or engagement
C. First perception of fetal movement
D. Onset of Braxton Hicks contractions
,Correct Answer: C. First perception of fetal movement
Rationale: Quickening is the mother’s first perception of fetal movement, typically felt between 16–20 weeks in primigravidas.
4. Which laboratory value is routinely screened in the first trimester to assess for neural tube defects?
A. Blood type and Rh factor
B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
D. Rubella titer
Correct Answer: C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Rationale: AFP screening at 15–20 weeks helps detect neural tube defects; abnormal levels prompt further testing (ultrasound, amniocentesis).
5. A client at 32 weeks with preterm labor is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment is priority?
A. Maternal respiratory rate, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output
B. Temperature every shift
C. Blood pressure every 8 hours
D. Fetal heart rate baseline only
Correct Answer: A. Maternal respiratory rate, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output
Rationale: Magnesium toxicity causes respiratory depression and loss of reflexes; monitor RR (>12), DTRs (present), and urine output (>30 mL/hr).
6. Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Inactivated influenza
C. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
D. Tdap
Correct Answer: C. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
Rationale: Live vaccines (MMR, varicella) are contraindicated in pregnancy due to theoretical risk to the fetus; give postpartum if needed.
7. A pregnant client at 24 weeks has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 155 mg/dL. The next step is:
A. No further testing needed
B. Perform a 3-hour glucose tolerance test
C. Repeat the 1-hour test in 1 week
D. Diagnose gestational diabetes immediately
Correct Answer: B. Perform a 3-hour glucose tolerance test
Rationale: A 1-hour result ≥140 mg/dL requires a diagnostic 3-hour GTT to confirm gestational diabetes.
8. Which instruction is most important for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?
A. Eat large meals before bedtime
B. Avoid all fluids
C. Small, frequent meals and antiemetics as prescribed; monitor for dehydration and weight loss
D. Increase physical activity
, Correct Answer: C. Small, frequent meals and antiemetics as prescribed; monitor for dehydration and weight loss
Rationale: Hyperemesis requires antiemetics, small frequent meals, and monitoring for dehydration, ketosis, and weight loss >5%.
9. A client at 18 weeks has a fundal height of 14 cm. This finding suggests:
A. Possible intrauterine growth restriction or inaccurate dates
B. Multiple gestation
C. Normal pregnancy
D. Polyhydramnios
Correct Answer: A. Possible intrauterine growth restriction or inaccurate dates
Rationale: Fundal height should approximate gestational age in cm (±2 cm) after 20 weeks; lag may indicate IUGR or dating error.
10. Which sign indicates possible placental abruption in a client at 34 weeks?
A. Clear fluid leaking from the vagina
B. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
C. Mild backache only
D. Sudden onset of dark red bleeding with severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness
Correct Answer: D. Sudden onset of dark red bleeding with severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness
Rationale: Painful bleeding with a firm, tender uterus suggests abruption; painless bleeding suggests previa.
11. A client with Rh-negative blood type delivers an Rh-positive infant. The nurse anticipates administration of:
A. Rho(D) only during the next pregnancy
B. Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours postpartum if the mother is not sensitized
C. Rho(D) immune globulin only if the infant is Rh-negative
D. No Rho(D) needed
Correct Answer: B. Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours postpartum if the mother is not sensitized
Rationale: Rh-negative unsensitized mothers receive RhoGAM within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-positive infant to prevent sensitization.
12. Which fetal heart rate pattern is most concerning during labor?
A. Variable decelerations that resolve with position change
B. Early decelerations with contractions
C. Accelerations with fetal movement
D. Late decelerations with minimal variability
Correct Answer: D. Late decelerations with minimal variability
Rationale: Late decelerations with reduced variability suggest uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia requiring intervention.
13. A client at 36 weeks reports sudden gush of clear fluid. The nurse should first:
A. Administer oxytocin immediately
B. Send the client home to rest
C. Perform a vaginal exam to check for cord prolapse
D. Assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs, then confirm PROM with Nitrazine or ferning test
ALREADY GRADED A+ | 100% VERIFIED
Nursing & Maternal-Newborn Health | Academic Nursing Programs / NCLEX-RN Aligned Standards
Key Domains: Antenatal Care, Intrapartum Nursing, Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, High-Risk Pregnancy, Labor and Delivery Complications, Maternity
Pharmacology, and Family-Centered Care | Expert-Aligned Structure | Exam-Ready Format
Introduction
This structured MATERNITY CJE EXAM format for 2026–2027 provides the complete layout for generating high-quality exam-style questions with correct answers and
rationales. It emphasizes foundational maternal-newborn nursing principles, evidence-based clinical interventions, patient safety protocols, and critical thinking strategies
essential for professional nursing practice and successful academic or licensure certification.
The official, verified question count for the actual MATERNITY CJE (Comprehensive Joint Examination / Maternity Final) is exactly 100 multiple-choice questions. This
document mirrors that authentic exam length and structure.
Answer Format
All correct answers appear in BOLD CYAN. Each question includes a concise rationale explaining safety/clinical reasoning, protocol adherence, and why alternative options
are less appropriate.
1. A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. The nurse’s first action should be to:
A. Reassure the client that this is normal in the third trimester
B. Administer a non-stress test immediately without assessment
C. Instruct the client to lie on her left side and count fetal movements for 1 hour
D. Schedule an appointment for next week
Correct Answer: C. Instruct the client to lie on her left side and count fetal movements for 1 hour
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement requires immediate assessment with kick counts (≥10 movements in 2 hours) or non-stress test to evaluate fetal
well-being.
2. Which finding at 36 weeks gestation is most concerning for preeclampsia?
A. Heartburn after meals
B. Blood pressure 158/102 mmHg with proteinuria
C. Mild ankle edema
D. Increased urinary frequency
Correct Answer: B. Blood pressure 158/102 mmHg with proteinuria
Rationale: BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria defines preeclampsia; severe range (>160/110) or symptoms require urgent intervention.
3. A primigravida at 20 weeks reports quickening. The nurse explains this as:
A. Fetal heart tones audible with Doppler
B. Lightening or engagement
C. First perception of fetal movement
D. Onset of Braxton Hicks contractions
,Correct Answer: C. First perception of fetal movement
Rationale: Quickening is the mother’s first perception of fetal movement, typically felt between 16–20 weeks in primigravidas.
4. Which laboratory value is routinely screened in the first trimester to assess for neural tube defects?
A. Blood type and Rh factor
B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
D. Rubella titer
Correct Answer: C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Rationale: AFP screening at 15–20 weeks helps detect neural tube defects; abnormal levels prompt further testing (ultrasound, amniocentesis).
5. A client at 32 weeks with preterm labor is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment is priority?
A. Maternal respiratory rate, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output
B. Temperature every shift
C. Blood pressure every 8 hours
D. Fetal heart rate baseline only
Correct Answer: A. Maternal respiratory rate, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output
Rationale: Magnesium toxicity causes respiratory depression and loss of reflexes; monitor RR (>12), DTRs (present), and urine output (>30 mL/hr).
6. Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Inactivated influenza
C. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
D. Tdap
Correct Answer: C. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
Rationale: Live vaccines (MMR, varicella) are contraindicated in pregnancy due to theoretical risk to the fetus; give postpartum if needed.
7. A pregnant client at 24 weeks has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 155 mg/dL. The next step is:
A. No further testing needed
B. Perform a 3-hour glucose tolerance test
C. Repeat the 1-hour test in 1 week
D. Diagnose gestational diabetes immediately
Correct Answer: B. Perform a 3-hour glucose tolerance test
Rationale: A 1-hour result ≥140 mg/dL requires a diagnostic 3-hour GTT to confirm gestational diabetes.
8. Which instruction is most important for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?
A. Eat large meals before bedtime
B. Avoid all fluids
C. Small, frequent meals and antiemetics as prescribed; monitor for dehydration and weight loss
D. Increase physical activity
, Correct Answer: C. Small, frequent meals and antiemetics as prescribed; monitor for dehydration and weight loss
Rationale: Hyperemesis requires antiemetics, small frequent meals, and monitoring for dehydration, ketosis, and weight loss >5%.
9. A client at 18 weeks has a fundal height of 14 cm. This finding suggests:
A. Possible intrauterine growth restriction or inaccurate dates
B. Multiple gestation
C. Normal pregnancy
D. Polyhydramnios
Correct Answer: A. Possible intrauterine growth restriction or inaccurate dates
Rationale: Fundal height should approximate gestational age in cm (±2 cm) after 20 weeks; lag may indicate IUGR or dating error.
10. Which sign indicates possible placental abruption in a client at 34 weeks?
A. Clear fluid leaking from the vagina
B. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
C. Mild backache only
D. Sudden onset of dark red bleeding with severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness
Correct Answer: D. Sudden onset of dark red bleeding with severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness
Rationale: Painful bleeding with a firm, tender uterus suggests abruption; painless bleeding suggests previa.
11. A client with Rh-negative blood type delivers an Rh-positive infant. The nurse anticipates administration of:
A. Rho(D) only during the next pregnancy
B. Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours postpartum if the mother is not sensitized
C. Rho(D) immune globulin only if the infant is Rh-negative
D. No Rho(D) needed
Correct Answer: B. Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours postpartum if the mother is not sensitized
Rationale: Rh-negative unsensitized mothers receive RhoGAM within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-positive infant to prevent sensitization.
12. Which fetal heart rate pattern is most concerning during labor?
A. Variable decelerations that resolve with position change
B. Early decelerations with contractions
C. Accelerations with fetal movement
D. Late decelerations with minimal variability
Correct Answer: D. Late decelerations with minimal variability
Rationale: Late decelerations with reduced variability suggest uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia requiring intervention.
13. A client at 36 weeks reports sudden gush of clear fluid. The nurse should first:
A. Administer oxytocin immediately
B. Send the client home to rest
C. Perform a vaginal exam to check for cord prolapse
D. Assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs, then confirm PROM with Nitrazine or ferning test
