2023 ATI PN
Pharmacology
280 EXAM QUESTIONS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
GET A LEVEL 2 OR HIGHER
What You’ll Get:
• 280 Pharmacology nursing questions
• Detailed answer rationales for each question
• Exam-focused, high-yield content
Perfect For:
• PN/LPN nursing students
• ATI Pharmacology Exam prep
• NCLEX-PN preparation
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,PREVIEW QUESTIONS BELOW
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study
resources, feel free to Message me."
,TABLE OF CONTENTS
2023 ATI PN Pharmacology - Interactive Exam Sets
Click an exam set below to open it.
ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM SET 1 Page 3
Open exam set
ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM SET 2 Page 50
Open exam set
ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM SET 3 Page 94
Open exam set
ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM SET 4 Page 135
Open exam set
PDF bookmarks are also available in the navigation panel.
, 2023 ATI PN
Pharmacology
EXAM QUESTIONS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
GET A LEVEL 2 OR HIGHER
What You’ll Get:
• 70 Pharmacology nursing questions
• Detailed answer rationales for each question
• Exam-focused, high-yield content
Perfect For:
• PN/LPN nursing students
• ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam prep
• NCLEX-PN preparation
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,1. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assisting in the care of a client who is
postoperative following left knee arthroplasty. Which action should the nurse take
FIRST?
A. Culture surgical wound
B. Administer oxycodone
C. Assess pain level using a standardized scale
D. Check vital signs
CORRECT ANSWER: B - Administer oxycodone
RATIONALE: The nurse should first administer oxycodone, then culture the surgical
wound. Priority is given to pain management postoperatively. Unrelieved pain can lead
to complications including decreased mobility, increased risk of deep vein thrombosis,
delayed healing, and poor respiratory function. Once pain is managed, the nurse can
proceed with wound assessment and culture if indicated. Pain is considered the "fifth
vital sign" and requires prompt intervention.
2. A nurse is evaluating a client's data collection findings at a follow-up visit.
Which findings require immediate follow-up by the provider? (Select all that
apply)
A. Blood pressure 168/102 mmHg
B. Heart rate 88/min
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg
D. Heart rate 110/min
CORRECT ANSWERS: A and D - Blood pressure 168/102 mmHg and Heart rate
110/min
RATIONALE: The client's blood pressure and heart rate require follow-up by the
provider. A blood pressure of 168/102 mmHg indicates Stage 2 hypertension requiring
medical intervention. A heart rate of 110/min indicates tachycardia, which may indicate
,pain, anxiety, infection, cardiac issues, or medication adverse effects. Normal vital signs
(BP 118/76, HR 88) do not require immediate provider notification.
3. CASE STUDY: MEDICAL-SURGICAL UNIT - POSTOPERATIVE CLIENT
Client Scenario: A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assisting in the care of a client
who is postoperative following left knee arthroplasty.
Drag and Drop: Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
"The nurse should first __________, then __________."
Available Options:
• Administer oxycodone
• Culture surgical wound
• Assess vital signs
• Apply ice to surgical site
CORRECT ANSWER:
• FIRST: Administer oxycodone
• THEN: Culture surgical wound
RATIONALE: Pain management is priority postoperatively to facilitate mobility, prevent
complications, and promote healing. Once pain is controlled, wound assessment and
culture (if indicated by signs of infection) can be performed.
4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client about adverse effects of discharge
medications. The client is taking esomeprazole long-term. The nurse should
reinforce that the client is at risk of developing which condition?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Clostridium difficile infection
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
,CORRECT ANSWER: A - Osteoporosis
RATIONALE: The nurse should reinforce teaching about the risk of developing
osteoporosis with extended use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) like
esomeprazole. PPIs reduce gastric acid, which decreases calcium absorption and may
lead to bone loss. Clients who require PPIs should use them at the lowest dose possible
for the shortest duration necessary to manage their condition. While
hypomagnesemia, C. diff infection, and B12 deficiency are also PPI risks, osteoporosis is
the priority concern for long-term use.
5. An older adult client in a skilled nursing facility is prescribed multiple
anticholinergic medications. Which complications is this client at risk for
developing? (Select all that apply)
A. Dry mouth
B. Photophobia
C. Tachycardia
D. Blurred vision
E. Urinary retention
F. Constipation
CORRECT ANSWERS: A, B, C, D, E, and F
RATIONALE: Older adults are particularly vulnerable to anticholinergic adverse effects
due to age-related changes in drug metabolism. Anticholinergic medications block
acetylcholine, causing:
• Dry mouth (xerostomia) - reduced salivation
• Photophobia - pupillary dilation
• Tachycardia - increased heart rate due to vagal blockade
• Blurred vision - cycloplegia and mydriasis
• Urinary retention - detrusor muscle relaxation
, • Constipation - decreased GI motility
These effects increase fall risk and cognitive impairment in older adults.
6. A nurse is monitoring a client who is 2 hours postoperative with a prescription
for opioid analgesics. Which action provides the nurse with the PRIORITY data to
determine the client's need for analgesia?
A. Review the surgical procedure documentation
B. Ask the client to rate their pain using a 0-10 scale
C. Observe for nonverbal signs of pain
D. Check the last dose administered time
CORRECT ANSWER: B - Ask the client to rate their pain using a 0-10 scale
RATIONALE: The priority data comes directly from the client's self-report of pain
intensity. Pain is subjective, and the client's rating using a standardized scale (0-10) is
the most reliable indicator of pain severity and need for intervention. While nonverbal
cues are important (especially if client cannot communicate), self-report is the gold
standard when available.
7. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
theophylline. Which outcome should the nurse instruct the client to expect?
A. Decreased frequency of asthma attacks
B. Suppression of allergic responses
C. Dilation of bronchioles
D. Reduction of airway inflammation
CORRECT ANSWER: C - Dilation of bronchioles
RATIONALE: Theophylline is a methylxanthine bronchodilator that works by dilating
bronchioles through relaxation of smooth muscle. It also has mild anti-inflammatory
effects and improves diaphragmatic contractility. However, the primary expected
,outcome is bronchodilation. Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic index, requiring
monitoring of blood levels (therapeutic range 10-20 mcg/mL).
8. A nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a 10-year history of alcohol use
disorder who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention is the
PRIORITY?
A. Administer thiamine 100 mg IV
B. Implement seizure precautions
C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes
D. Provide a quiet, dimly lit environment
CORRECT ANSWER: B - Implement seizure precautions
RATIONALE: The priority intervention for acute alcohol withdrawal is implementing
seizure precautions. Alcohol withdrawal seizures typically occur within 6-48 hours after
the last drink and can be life-threatening. While all options are appropriate
interventions, seizure precautions address the most immediate life-threatening risk.
Delirium tremens (DTs) can develop 48-72 hours after cessation with mortality up to
15% if untreated.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer phenobarbital 3 mg/kg PO twice daily to a
school-age child weighing 44 lb. Available is phenobarbital elixir 20 mg/5 mL. How
many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest whole
number)
A. 10 mL
B. 12 mL
C. 15 mL
D. 20 mL
CORRECT ANSWER: C - 15 mL
RATIONALE:
, • Convert weight: 44 lb ÷ 2.2 = 20 kg
• Calculate dose: 20 kg × 3 mg/kg = 60 mg per dose
• Calculate volume:
o 20 mg/5 mL = 4 mg/mL
o 60 mg ÷ 4 mg/mL = 15 mL per dose
10. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking metformin. Which findings
should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately as manifestations of
lactic acidosis? (Select all that apply)
A. Muscle pain
B. Hyperventilation
C. Dizziness
D. Increased appetite
E. Warm, flushed skin
CORRECT ANSWERS: A, B, and C
RATIONALE: Lactic acidosis is a rare but life-threatening adverse effect of metformin,
particularly in clients with renal impairment. Manifestations include:
• Muscle pain (A) - due to tissue hypoxia
• Hyperventilation (B) - compensatory respiratory response to metabolic acidosis
• Dizziness (C) - due to decreased tissue perfusion
• Also: weakness, malaise, somnolence, abdominal pain, and slow/irregular
heartbeat
Metformin is contraindicated in clients with eGFR <30 mL/min/1.73m².
Pharmacology
280 EXAM QUESTIONS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
GET A LEVEL 2 OR HIGHER
What You’ll Get:
• 280 Pharmacology nursing questions
• Detailed answer rationales for each question
• Exam-focused, high-yield content
Perfect For:
• PN/LPN nursing students
• ATI Pharmacology Exam prep
• NCLEX-PN preparation
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,PREVIEW QUESTIONS BELOW
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study
resources, feel free to Message me."
,TABLE OF CONTENTS
2023 ATI PN Pharmacology - Interactive Exam Sets
Click an exam set below to open it.
ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM SET 1 Page 3
Open exam set
ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM SET 2 Page 50
Open exam set
ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM SET 3 Page 94
Open exam set
ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM SET 4 Page 135
Open exam set
PDF bookmarks are also available in the navigation panel.
, 2023 ATI PN
Pharmacology
EXAM QUESTIONS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
GET A LEVEL 2 OR HIGHER
What You’ll Get:
• 70 Pharmacology nursing questions
• Detailed answer rationales for each question
• Exam-focused, high-yield content
Perfect For:
• PN/LPN nursing students
• ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam prep
• NCLEX-PN preparation
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,1. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assisting in the care of a client who is
postoperative following left knee arthroplasty. Which action should the nurse take
FIRST?
A. Culture surgical wound
B. Administer oxycodone
C. Assess pain level using a standardized scale
D. Check vital signs
CORRECT ANSWER: B - Administer oxycodone
RATIONALE: The nurse should first administer oxycodone, then culture the surgical
wound. Priority is given to pain management postoperatively. Unrelieved pain can lead
to complications including decreased mobility, increased risk of deep vein thrombosis,
delayed healing, and poor respiratory function. Once pain is managed, the nurse can
proceed with wound assessment and culture if indicated. Pain is considered the "fifth
vital sign" and requires prompt intervention.
2. A nurse is evaluating a client's data collection findings at a follow-up visit.
Which findings require immediate follow-up by the provider? (Select all that
apply)
A. Blood pressure 168/102 mmHg
B. Heart rate 88/min
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg
D. Heart rate 110/min
CORRECT ANSWERS: A and D - Blood pressure 168/102 mmHg and Heart rate
110/min
RATIONALE: The client's blood pressure and heart rate require follow-up by the
provider. A blood pressure of 168/102 mmHg indicates Stage 2 hypertension requiring
medical intervention. A heart rate of 110/min indicates tachycardia, which may indicate
,pain, anxiety, infection, cardiac issues, or medication adverse effects. Normal vital signs
(BP 118/76, HR 88) do not require immediate provider notification.
3. CASE STUDY: MEDICAL-SURGICAL UNIT - POSTOPERATIVE CLIENT
Client Scenario: A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assisting in the care of a client
who is postoperative following left knee arthroplasty.
Drag and Drop: Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
"The nurse should first __________, then __________."
Available Options:
• Administer oxycodone
• Culture surgical wound
• Assess vital signs
• Apply ice to surgical site
CORRECT ANSWER:
• FIRST: Administer oxycodone
• THEN: Culture surgical wound
RATIONALE: Pain management is priority postoperatively to facilitate mobility, prevent
complications, and promote healing. Once pain is controlled, wound assessment and
culture (if indicated by signs of infection) can be performed.
4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client about adverse effects of discharge
medications. The client is taking esomeprazole long-term. The nurse should
reinforce that the client is at risk of developing which condition?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Clostridium difficile infection
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
,CORRECT ANSWER: A - Osteoporosis
RATIONALE: The nurse should reinforce teaching about the risk of developing
osteoporosis with extended use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) like
esomeprazole. PPIs reduce gastric acid, which decreases calcium absorption and may
lead to bone loss. Clients who require PPIs should use them at the lowest dose possible
for the shortest duration necessary to manage their condition. While
hypomagnesemia, C. diff infection, and B12 deficiency are also PPI risks, osteoporosis is
the priority concern for long-term use.
5. An older adult client in a skilled nursing facility is prescribed multiple
anticholinergic medications. Which complications is this client at risk for
developing? (Select all that apply)
A. Dry mouth
B. Photophobia
C. Tachycardia
D. Blurred vision
E. Urinary retention
F. Constipation
CORRECT ANSWERS: A, B, C, D, E, and F
RATIONALE: Older adults are particularly vulnerable to anticholinergic adverse effects
due to age-related changes in drug metabolism. Anticholinergic medications block
acetylcholine, causing:
• Dry mouth (xerostomia) - reduced salivation
• Photophobia - pupillary dilation
• Tachycardia - increased heart rate due to vagal blockade
• Blurred vision - cycloplegia and mydriasis
• Urinary retention - detrusor muscle relaxation
, • Constipation - decreased GI motility
These effects increase fall risk and cognitive impairment in older adults.
6. A nurse is monitoring a client who is 2 hours postoperative with a prescription
for opioid analgesics. Which action provides the nurse with the PRIORITY data to
determine the client's need for analgesia?
A. Review the surgical procedure documentation
B. Ask the client to rate their pain using a 0-10 scale
C. Observe for nonverbal signs of pain
D. Check the last dose administered time
CORRECT ANSWER: B - Ask the client to rate their pain using a 0-10 scale
RATIONALE: The priority data comes directly from the client's self-report of pain
intensity. Pain is subjective, and the client's rating using a standardized scale (0-10) is
the most reliable indicator of pain severity and need for intervention. While nonverbal
cues are important (especially if client cannot communicate), self-report is the gold
standard when available.
7. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
theophylline. Which outcome should the nurse instruct the client to expect?
A. Decreased frequency of asthma attacks
B. Suppression of allergic responses
C. Dilation of bronchioles
D. Reduction of airway inflammation
CORRECT ANSWER: C - Dilation of bronchioles
RATIONALE: Theophylline is a methylxanthine bronchodilator that works by dilating
bronchioles through relaxation of smooth muscle. It also has mild anti-inflammatory
effects and improves diaphragmatic contractility. However, the primary expected
,outcome is bronchodilation. Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic index, requiring
monitoring of blood levels (therapeutic range 10-20 mcg/mL).
8. A nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a 10-year history of alcohol use
disorder who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention is the
PRIORITY?
A. Administer thiamine 100 mg IV
B. Implement seizure precautions
C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes
D. Provide a quiet, dimly lit environment
CORRECT ANSWER: B - Implement seizure precautions
RATIONALE: The priority intervention for acute alcohol withdrawal is implementing
seizure precautions. Alcohol withdrawal seizures typically occur within 6-48 hours after
the last drink and can be life-threatening. While all options are appropriate
interventions, seizure precautions address the most immediate life-threatening risk.
Delirium tremens (DTs) can develop 48-72 hours after cessation with mortality up to
15% if untreated.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer phenobarbital 3 mg/kg PO twice daily to a
school-age child weighing 44 lb. Available is phenobarbital elixir 20 mg/5 mL. How
many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest whole
number)
A. 10 mL
B. 12 mL
C. 15 mL
D. 20 mL
CORRECT ANSWER: C - 15 mL
RATIONALE:
, • Convert weight: 44 lb ÷ 2.2 = 20 kg
• Calculate dose: 20 kg × 3 mg/kg = 60 mg per dose
• Calculate volume:
o 20 mg/5 mL = 4 mg/mL
o 60 mg ÷ 4 mg/mL = 15 mL per dose
10. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking metformin. Which findings
should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately as manifestations of
lactic acidosis? (Select all that apply)
A. Muscle pain
B. Hyperventilation
C. Dizziness
D. Increased appetite
E. Warm, flushed skin
CORRECT ANSWERS: A, B, and C
RATIONALE: Lactic acidosis is a rare but life-threatening adverse effect of metformin,
particularly in clients with renal impairment. Manifestations include:
• Muscle pain (A) - due to tissue hypoxia
• Hyperventilation (B) - compensatory respiratory response to metabolic acidosis
• Dizziness (C) - due to decreased tissue perfusion
• Also: weakness, malaise, somnolence, abdominal pain, and slow/irregular
heartbeat
Metformin is contraindicated in clients with eGFR <30 mL/min/1.73m².
