EVOLVE HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS &
VERIFIED ANSWERS COMPREHENSIVE STUDY GUIDE
(2026-27)
Question 1
A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed manual
reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication should the nurse
explain as a sedative used during the procedure?
A. Inhaled nitrous
oxide B.Midazolam
IV
C. Ketamine IM
D. Fentanyl and droperidol IM
CORRECT ANSWER
B. Midazolam IV
Question 2
A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, and
acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the health
care provider to report that the client has developed diarrhea. Which change in
prescriptions should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.
CORRECT ANSWER
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
,Question 3
When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine bromide for
myasthenia gravis, which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to decrease gastrointestinal irritation.
CORRECT ANSWER
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
Question 4
A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is intubated
and placed on assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation
and prevent the client from "fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider
administers pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid analgesia. What
medication should be immediately accessible for a potential complication with
this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine
CORRECT ANSWER
B. Neostigmine bromide
,Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs, reverse
the
respiratory muscle paralysis caused by pancuronium bromide. Options A, C,
and D are not antagonists to pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in
reversing the effects of the drug compared with the use of anticholinergics.
Question 5
A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine to treat
ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client prior
to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
CORRECT ANSWER
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
Question 6
The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child whose tonic-
clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse informs the mother that
the child must have blood tests every week. The mother asks why so many
blood tests are necessary. Which
complication is assessed through frequent laboratory testing that the nurse
should explain to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C.Myelosuppressio
n D.Hepatotoxicity
CORRECT ANSWER
, C. Myelosuppression
Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can potentially affect
clients managed with carbamazepine therapy. The client requires close
monitoring for this
condition by weekly laboratory testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but
this complication does not have as great a potential for occurrence as option
C. Options A and B are not typical complications of carbamazepine therapy.
Question 7
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving
chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding
for hematuria." The administration of which type of chemotherapeutic agent
would prompt the nurse to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide
CORRECT ANSWER
D. Cyclophosphamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does not typically
cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
Question 8
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis infection.
Which
response by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the drug
teaching conducted by the nurse?
VERIFIED ANSWERS COMPREHENSIVE STUDY GUIDE
(2026-27)
Question 1
A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed manual
reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication should the nurse
explain as a sedative used during the procedure?
A. Inhaled nitrous
oxide B.Midazolam
IV
C. Ketamine IM
D. Fentanyl and droperidol IM
CORRECT ANSWER
B. Midazolam IV
Question 2
A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, and
acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the health
care provider to report that the client has developed diarrhea. Which change in
prescriptions should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.
CORRECT ANSWER
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
,Question 3
When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine bromide for
myasthenia gravis, which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to decrease gastrointestinal irritation.
CORRECT ANSWER
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
Question 4
A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is intubated
and placed on assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation
and prevent the client from "fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider
administers pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid analgesia. What
medication should be immediately accessible for a potential complication with
this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine
CORRECT ANSWER
B. Neostigmine bromide
,Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs, reverse
the
respiratory muscle paralysis caused by pancuronium bromide. Options A, C,
and D are not antagonists to pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in
reversing the effects of the drug compared with the use of anticholinergics.
Question 5
A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine to treat
ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client prior
to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
CORRECT ANSWER
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
Question 6
The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child whose tonic-
clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse informs the mother that
the child must have blood tests every week. The mother asks why so many
blood tests are necessary. Which
complication is assessed through frequent laboratory testing that the nurse
should explain to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C.Myelosuppressio
n D.Hepatotoxicity
CORRECT ANSWER
, C. Myelosuppression
Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can potentially affect
clients managed with carbamazepine therapy. The client requires close
monitoring for this
condition by weekly laboratory testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but
this complication does not have as great a potential for occurrence as option
C. Options A and B are not typical complications of carbamazepine therapy.
Question 7
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving
chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding
for hematuria." The administration of which type of chemotherapeutic agent
would prompt the nurse to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide
CORRECT ANSWER
D. Cyclophosphamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does not typically
cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
Question 8
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis infection.
Which
response by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the drug
teaching conducted by the nurse?
