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NSG 6020 3P EXAM STUDY 2026/2027 | SOUTH UNIVERSITY 350 MULTIPLE-CHOICE PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS AND RATIONALES

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Are you preparing for the NSG 6020 "3P" (Pathophysiology, Pharmacology, and Physical Assessment) exam at South University? Feeling overwhelmed by the integration of advanced health assessment, pathophysiology, and pharmacology concepts? This meticulously compiled 350+ practice questions and answers guide is your ultimate study companion for 2026/2025! What's Inside This Complete Study Resource: SECTION 1: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT & PHYSICAL EXAMINATION (Questions 1-80) Neurological Assessment: Central vs. Peripheral Nervous System (CNS = brain & spinal cord; PNS = cranial nerves, spinal nerves, branches) Cranial Nerves: CN XI (Spinal Accessory - SCM and trapezius) Corneal Reflex (CN V sensory, CN VII motor) Vertigo (rotational spinning) vs. Dizziness vs. Syncope vs. Lightheadedness Paresthesia (numbness/tingling) vs. Anesthesia vs. Dysesthesia Ataxia (unsteady gait) vs. Apraxia vs. Dyskinesia vs. Dystonia Stereognosis (object identification by touch) vs. Graphesthesia Pupillary assessment: Miosis (pinpoint - opioids) vs. Mydriasis (dilated - stimulants) Comatose patient assessment: Pupils should NOT be dilated Meningitis: Fever, neck stiffness (nuchal rigidity), photophobia (NOT supple neck) Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat (HEENT): Visual acuity: 20/20 normal; 20/30, 20/40 mild impairment Leukoedema: Grayish-white buccal lesion, common in Black patients (benign) Paget's disease: Headache, vertigo, tinnitus, deafness (skull enlargement) Thyroid examination: Elevated thyroxine (T4) = hyperthyroidism; bruit = increased vascularity Myxedema: Dull puffiness of eyes, non-pitting periorbital edema (advanced hypothyroidism) Submental lymph nodes: Drain floor of mouth, lower lip, tongue tip; assess area proximal Cardiovascular Assessment: Apical pulse (PMI): 5th Left ICS, Midclavicular Line Mitral regurgitation: Thrill and lift at apex, holosystolic murmur after S1, fatigue, PND, palpitations Aortic stenosis: Systolic ejection murmur at right upper sternal border, radiates to carotids Mitral stenosis: Diastolic murmur at apex with opening snap Male Genitourinary Assessment: Testicular torsion: Sudden severe pain, nausea, vomiting (surgical emergency) Acute orchitis: Follows viral infection (mumps), testicular swelling, tenderness, fever Testicular cancer: Painless testicular mass (priority to rule out in young men) Hydrocele: Painless scrotal mass, transilluminates (fluid-filled) Varicocele: "Bag of worms" feeling, dilated veins Phimosis: Inability to retract foreskin Paraphimosis: Retracted foreskin cannot be returned (urologic emergency) Prostate examination: Firm, nodular, painless = prostate cancer (priority) Breast Assessment: Fibroadenoma: Firm, rubbery, mobile, painless (age 15-35) Inflammatory breast cancer: Peau d'orange appearance, erythema, edema Fibrocystic changes: Bilateral, tender, cystic, fluctuate with menstrual cycle Mastitis: Tender, warm, erythematous breast in breastfeeding women SOAP Note Documentation: Subjective: Patient's description of symptoms (pain, nausea, vomiting) Objective: Physical exam findings, vital signs, lab data Assessment: Differential diagnoses (group of 3 evidence-based diagnoses NOT including primary) Plan: Diagnostic tests, treatments, referrals Endocrine System Fundamentals: cAMP pathway: Hormone → Membrane Receptor → G Protein → Adenylyl Cyclase → cAMP → Protein Kinase A → Phosphorylates target proteins Calcium pathway: Hormone → Membrane Receptor → G Protein → Phospholipase C → PIP2 → IP3 + DAG → IP3 releases calcium from intracellular stores → Calcium binds Calmodulin → CaM Kinase Endocrine system: Many separate glands dispersed throughout body; hormones secreted into bloodstream; regulate homeostasis SECTION 2: ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY (Questions 81-160) Fluid & Electrolyte Disorders: Dehydration: Leads to confusion via poor cerebral perfusion and cerebral hypoxia Older adults: Less total body water → greater dehydration risk Hypokalemia: Most common electrolyte abnormality in critically ill; causes: diuretics, vomiting, diarrhea Hyperkalemia treatment: Calcium gluconate, insulin/glucose, albuterol Hyponatremia: Most common cause = SIADH; can cause cerebral edema and confusion Hypocalcemia: Most common cause in critically ill = massive blood transfusion (citrate chelation) Hypomagnesemia: Most common causes = diuretic use, alcoholism Hyperphosphatemia: Most common causes = CKD, hypoparathyroidism Endocrine Pathophysiology: Type 2 diabetes risk factors: PCOS, obesity, family history, age ≥ 35 Metabolic syndrome criteria: HDL 40 mg/dL (men) OR 50 mg/dL (women); elevated triglycerides, BP, fasting glucose, abdominal obesity Hyperthyroidism: Heat intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia, diarrhea, elevated T4 Hypothyroidism: Cold intolerance, weight gain, fatigue, constipation, elevated TSH Hashimoto's thyroiditis: Most common cause of hypothyroidism in US Iodine deficiency: Most common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide Graves' disease: Most common cause of hyperthyroidism; exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema Hyperprolactinemia: Oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea, galactorrhea, infertility Adrenal insufficiency (Addison's): Hyperpigmentation, hypotension Cushing's syndrome: Most common cause = iatrogenic (glucocorticoids); moon facies, buffalo hump, striae Hyperaldosteronism: Hypertension, hypokalemia; most common cause = bilateral adrenal hyperplasia Pheochromocytoma: Paroxysmal hypertension, headache, palpitations, diaphoresis Hypercalcemia: Most common cause = primary hyperparathyroidism (outpatient); malignancy (inpatient) Hypocalcemia: Most common cause = Vitamin D deficiency Hypermagnesemia: Most common causes = renal failure, magnesium-containing medications Hypomagnesemia: Most common causes = diuretic use, alcoholism Hyperphosphatemia: Most common causes = CKD, hypoparathyroidism Neurological Pathophysiology: Migraine pathophysiology: Dilation of cerebral arteries Tension headache: "Tight band" around head (bilateral) Cluster headache: Unilateral severe pain around eye, lacrimation, nasal congestion "Thunderclap" headache: Subarachnoid hemorrhage (red flag) Meningitis: Headache, fever, nuchal rigidity (Kernig's/Brudzinski's signs) Stroke risk factors: Hypertension, Atrial fibrillation, Diabetes (NOT Hypotension) Primary headaches: Migraine, Tension, Cluster (NOT Temporal arteritis or Meningitis) Musculoskeletal Pathophysiology: Osteoarthritis: Degeneration of articular cartilage (wear and tear) Rheumatoid arthritis: Autoimmune destruction of synovial joints (symmetric, morning stiffness 1 hour) Gout: Elevated uric acid; acute flare in great toe (podagra) Fibromyalgia: Widespread chronic pain, multiple body areas Osteosarcoma: Night pain, pathologic fracture (pediatric) Paget's disease: Enlarged skull, headache, vertigo, tinnitus, deafness Other Pathophysiology: Munchausen Syndrome By Proxy: Caregiver makes up or causes illness in person under their care; symptoms resolve when away from abuser Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis): Barking cough, stridor (pediatric) Pagophagia (eating ice): Associated with iron deficiency anemia Costochondritis: Chest pain worsened by palpation, deep breathing, movement (NOT hemoptysis) SECTION 3: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY (Questions 161-240) Cardiovascular Medications: Prostaglandin E1 (Alprostadil): Maintains ductus arteriosus patency in transposition of great arteries 5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitors (Finasteride, Dutasteride): Inhibit conversion of testosterone to DHT → reduces prostate size Alpha-Blockers (Tamsulosin): Relax smooth muscle in prostate → improves urine flow ACE Inhibitors: Contraindicated in pregnancy; angioedema risk; first-line for diabetic nephropathy Bisphosphonates: Inhibit bone resorption; side effects: esophagitis, ONJ, atypical femoral fractures; take with full water, remain upright 30 min Digoxin: Used in heart failure and atrial fibrillation; risk of toxicity with hypokalemia Furosemide: Loop diuretic; hypokalemia risk Spironolactone: Potassium-sparing diuretic; contraindicated in hyperkalemia Nitroglycerin: Acute angina relief (sublingual) Warfarin: Monitor INR; anticoagulation for atrial fibrillation Beta-Blockers, Calcium Channel Blockers, ACE Inhibitors: All used in hypertension and heart failure Endocrine Medications: Levothyroxine: Treatment for hypothyroidism Methimazole, Propylthiouracil (PTU): Antithyroid medications for hyperthyroidism; monitor for agranulocytosis, hepatotoxicity Radioactive Iodine: Treatment for hyperthyroidism; often causes hypothyroidism Metformin: First-line for type 2 diabetes; contraindicated in renal impairment (lactic acidosis) Acarbose: Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor; blocks glucose transport across intestine Allopurinol: Urate-lowering therapy for gout; NOT for acute flares (can worsen) Colchicine, NSAIDs, Corticosteroids: Acute gout flare treatment Estrogen Replacement Therapy: Contraindicated in breast/uterine cancer Testosterone Replacement: Contraindicated in prostate cancer Psychiatric Medications: SSRIs (Fluoxetine, Sertraline): Treat depression; monitor for serotonin syndrome, hyponatremia (SIADH) Lithium: Mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder; monitor levels, renal function, thyroid function Antipsychotics (Haloperidol): Schizophrenia; monitor weight gain, hyperglycemia, EPS Benzodiazepines, SSRIs, Buspirone: All used for anxiety disorders Naloxone: Opioid antagonist for opioid overdose Methimazole, Propylthiouracil: Hyperthyroidism; monitor agranulocytosis Other Medications: Donepezil: Alzheimer's disease; monitor for bradycardia Levodopa: Parkinson's disease; avoid high-dose vitamin B6, protein-rich meals Ondansetron, Metoclopramide, Promethazine: Antiemetics; metoclopramide: monitor EPS, tardive dyskinesia Antibiotics: Cephalosporins cross-react with penicillin allergy (~10%) Tetracycline: Contraindicated in pregnancy; avoid dairy, sun exposure Isoniazid: Tuberculosis; monitor hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy (give B6) Direct-Acting Antivirals: Hepatitis C treatment Statins: Hyperlipidemia; monitor liver function, muscle pain PPIs: Peptic ulcer disease; long-term monitor B12, magnesium, osteoporosis risk SECTION 4: CLINICAL REASONING & DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS (Questions 241-300) Headache Differential: Tension: Bilateral "tight band," no aura Migraine: Unilateral throbbing, nausea, photophobia, aura Cluster: Unilateral periorbital, autonomic symptoms (lacrimation, nasal congestion) Temporal Arteritis: Jaw claudication, scalp tenderness, elevated ESR, vision changes (emergency) Meningitis: Fever, nuchal rigidity, headache Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: Thunderclap headache (emergency) Scrotal Mass Differential: Testicular Torsion: Sudden severe pain, nausea, vomiting (surgical emergency) Epididymitis: Gradual pain, fever, dysuria (infection) Orchitis: Viral prodrome (mumps), testicular swelling, fever Hydrocele: Painless, transilluminates (fluid-filled) Varicocele: "Bag of worms" (dilated veins) Testicular Cancer: Painless mass (priority to rule out) Prostate Differential: BPH: Urinary frequency, hesitancy, decreased stream (most common LUTS in older men) Prostatitis: Tender, boggy prostate, fever, dysuria Prostate Cancer: Firm, nodular, painless (requires PSA, biopsy) Prostatic Abscess: Tender, fluctuant, fever Breast Differential: Fibroadenoma: Firm, rubbery, mobile, painless (young women) Fibrocystic Changes: Bilateral, tender, cyclic (menstrual-related) Inflammatory Breast Cancer: Peau d'orange, erythema, edema (emergency) Breast Cancer: Fixed, irregular, nonmobile, often painless Mastitis: Tender, warm, erythematous (breastfeeding) Abdominal Pain Differential: Cholecystitis: RUQ pain, radiates to right shoulder, fever Appendicitis: RLQ pain, nausea, fever (rebound tenderness) Pancreatitis: Epigastric pain, radiates to back, nausea, vomiting Diverticulitis: LLQ pain, fever, change in bowel habits GERD: Heartburn, regurgitation, chest pain Duodenal Ulcer: Epigastric pain relieved by food Gastric Ulcer: Epigastric pain worsened by food Upper GI Bleeding: Hematemesis, melena Joint Pain Differential: Osteoarthritis: Gradual onset, weight-bearing joints, crepitus Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symmetric, morning stiffness 1 hour Gout: Sudden onset, great toe (podagra), erythema, swelling Septic Arthritis: Painful, swollen, erythematous, fever (emergency) Fibromyalgia: Widespread pain, multiple areas, fatigue SECTION 5: COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW & BOARD-STYLE QUESTIONS (Questions 301-350) Integrated Review: Acute asthma exacerbation: First-line = SABA (albuterol) Type 2 diabetes with microalbuminuria: ACE inhibitor (renoprotective) NAFLD: Most common cause of chronic liver disease in US Cirrhosis with ascites: Spironolactone + furosemide Spironolactone contraindication: Hyperkalemia Metformin contraindication: Renal impairment (lactic acidosis) Acute pancreatitis: Most common cause = gallstones Cholelithiasis risk factors: Obesity, female gender, pregnancy Acute kidney injury: Most common cause in hospitalized = prerenal azotemia CKD risk factors: Diabetes, hypertension Hyperkalemia in HF: ACE inhibitors, K+-sparing diuretics, salt substitutes Hypokalemia causes: Diuretics, vomiting, diarrhea Hyponatremia: Most common cause = SIADH Osteoporosis risk factors: Female, advanced age, low body weight Bisphosphonate side effects: Esophagitis, ONJ, atypical femoral fractures Hyperthyroidism: Most common cause = Graves' disease Hypothyroidism in US: Most common cause = Hashimoto's thyroiditis Thyroid cancer: Most common type = Papillary Adrenal insufficiency: Most common cause = Autoimmune adrenalitis (Addison's) Cushing's syndrome: Most common cause = Iatrogenic (glucocorticoids) Hyperaldosteronism: Most common cause = Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia Pheochromocytoma: Most common = Sporadic Hypercalcemia: Most common cause = Primary hyperparathyroidism (outpatient) Hypocalcemia: Most common cause = Vitamin D deficiency Hypermagnesemia: Most common causes = Renal failure, Mg-containing meds Hypomagnesemia: Most common causes = Diuretic use, alcoholism Hyperphosphatemia: Most common causes = CKD, hypoparathyroidism CKD hyperphosphatemia: Phosphate binders + dietary restriction Why This Guide is Your Best Study Investment: 350+ Exam-Style Questions - Covering every NSG 6020 "3P" topic Verified Correct Answers - With detailed rationales Aligned with South University Curriculum - Updated for 2026/2025 Integrated Approach - Pathophysiology, Pharmacology, and Health Assessment combined Perfect for Self-Assessment - Identify weak areas quickly Time-Saving - High-yield, focused content Portable - Study anywhere, anytime Perfect For: South University NSG 6020 "3P" Exam candidates Advanced practice nursing students (NP, FNP, AGNP) Graduate nursing students in advanced pathophysiology, pharmacology, and assessment Nursing students preparing for comprehensive exams Nurse practitioner board exam preparation RN to MSN students Healthcare professionals needing a comprehensive review Key Topics Covered: Advanced health assessment and physical examination Pathophysiology of major disease processes Pharmacological management of common conditions Clinical reasoning and differential diagnosis Endocrine, cardiovascular, neurological, musculoskeletal, genitourinary, gastrointestinal systems Fluid and electrolyte disorders Acid-base balance Diagnostic testing and interpretation SOAP note documentation SOAP note components: Subjective, Objective, Assessment (Differential Diagnoses), Plan

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NSG 6020 3P EXAM STUDY 2026/2027 |
SOUTH UNIVERSITY 350 MULTIPLE-CHOICE
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES

---


Section 1: Advanced Health Assessment & Physical Examination (Questions 1-
80)


1. When performing a visual acuity test, the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in
the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means:
A) Have the patient return in two weeks for a follow-up vision screen
B) Dilate the eye and retest
C) Refer the patient to an ophthalmologist
D) Document this as a normal finding


Correct Answer: D
Rationale: 20/20 is normal vision; 20/30 and 20/40 indicate mild visual
impairment but are not emergent. Documentation as a normal finding is
appropriate if this is the patient's baseline, though further evaluation may be
warranted if this is a change.


---


2. The brain and spinal cord are included in which of the following?

,A) Peripheral nervous system
B) Central nervous system
C) Autonomic nervous system
D) Somatic nervous system


Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord.
The peripheral nervous system includes the cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and
their branches.


---


3. The cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and branches make up which
of the following?
A) Central nervous system
B) Peripheral nervous system
C) Autonomic nervous system
D) Enteric nervous system


Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The peripheral nervous system includes all neural tissue outside
the CNS, including cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches.


---


4. A rotational sensation of spinning is considered to be which of the
following?

,A) Dizziness
B) Vertigo
C) Syncope
D) Lightheadedness


Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vertigo is specifically defined as a rotational sensation of spinning,
often associated with inner ear or vestibular system disorders.


---


5. A sensation of numbness and/or tingling of the extremities is referred to as
which of the following?
A) Paresthesia
B) Anesthesia
C) Dysesthesia
D) Hyperesthesia


Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Paresthesia is the medical term for abnormal sensations such as
numbness, tingling, or "pins and needles" in the extremities.


---


6. Lightly touching the cornea with a cotton ball would be examining which
type of reflex?

, A) Deep tendon reflex
B) Superficial reflex
C) Pathologic reflex
D) Visceral reflex


Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The corneal reflex is a superficial reflex that tests the sensory
function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal) and the motor function of cranial
nerve VII (facial).


---


7. Which of the following is Cranial Nerve XI?
A) Vagus
B) Hypoglossal
C) Spinal accessory
D) Glossopharyngeal


Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cranial Nerve XI is the spinal accessory nerve, which innervates the
sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.


---


8. Which of the following is NOT considered a primary headache?
A) Tension headache

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