NU 578 EXAM 5 — ADVANCED NURSING
PRACTICE (UNIVERSITY OF SOUTH
ALABAMA, 2026/2027)
OFFICIAL PRACTICE EXAM 2026/2027
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Anti-Infectives — Mechanisms of Action | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Drug Interactions & Adverse Effects | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Clinical Pharmacology & Pharmacotherapy | Q21 – Q35
Section 4 | Leadership & Professional Practice | Q36 – Q40
Section 5 | NGN-Style Clinical Judgment & Integrated Case Analysis | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
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SECTION 1: ANTI-INFECTIVES — MECHANISMS OF ACTION Q1 – Q10
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Question 1 of 50
A 24-year-old female presents with uncomplicated cystitis and is prescribed
cephalexin. She asks the nurse practitioner how this antibiotic will kill the bacteria.
The nurse practitioner explains that cephalexin exerts its bactericidal effect by
targeting the bacterial cell wall.
A. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins,
interfering with peptidoglycan cross-linking and leading to cell lysis ✓ CORRECT
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B. Binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit causing misreading of mRNA and lethal,
irreversible inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
C. Inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, preventing DNA replication and
transcription in the bacteria
D. Blocks folate synthesis by competitively inhibiting dihydropteroate synthase,
halting nucleotide production
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Penicillins and cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit
bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs),
interfering with peptidoglycan cross-linking and leading to cell lysis. Choice B is
incorrect because aminoglycosides, not cephalosporins, bind to the 30S ribosomal
subunit to inhibit protein synthesis. Always match the specific drug class to its
cellular target during pharmacology reviews.
Question 2 of 50
A 65-year-old male with Gram-negative sepsis is started on IV gentamicin. The
nurse practitioner reviews the mechanism of action to anticipate potential adverse
effects. The medication achieves bacterial death through direct interaction with the
bacterial ribosome.
A. Displaces bound calcium from bacterial membranes causing rapid
depolarization and cell death
B. Binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit causing misreading of mRNA and lethal,
irreversible inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis ✓ CORRECT
C. Binds reversibly to the 30S ribosomal subunit blocking tRNA attachment and
producing bacteriostatic inhibition
D. Inhibits RNA polymerase preventing the transcription of DNA into messenger
RNA within the bacteria
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Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like gentamicin bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit,
causing misreading of mRNA and lethal, irreversible inhibition of bacterial protein
synthesis. Choice C is incorrect because tetracyclines bind reversibly to the 30S
subunit to block tRNA attachment, resulting in bacteriostatic rather than
bactericidal action. Irreversible binding is the key reason aminoglycosides are
concentration-dependent killers.
Question 3 of 50
A 28-year-old female is prescribed oral doxycycline for the treatment of moderate
inflammatory acne. She is counseled on sun protection and dietary interactions.
The drug manages her condition by suppressing bacterial proliferation rather than
direct killing.
A. Interferes with peptidoglycan cross-linking leading to structural instability and
cell lysis
B. Causes direct DNA strand breakage in susceptible anaerobic bacteria localized
in the dermis
C. Binds reversibly to the 30S ribosomal subunit and blocks tRNA attachment,
producing bacteriostatic inhibition ✓ CORRECT
D. Inhibits RNA polymerase effectively halting bacterial transcription and
subsequent protein assembly
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tetracyclines bind reversibly to the 30S ribosomal subunit and block
tRNA attachment, producing bacteriostatic inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis.
Choice A is incorrect because inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking is the
mechanism of beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillins, not tetracyclines.
, 4
Bacteriostatic drugs rely on the host immune system to clear the suppressed
infection.
Question 4 of 50
A 42-year-old male returning from international travel presents with severe watery
diarrhea and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The prescriber selects this agent to target
the specific bacterial enzymes responsible for DNA maintenance.
A. Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase to block downstream folate
metabolism
B. Forms reactive intermediate metabolites that cause direct DNA strand breakage
C. Binds to penicillin-binding proteins to weaken the structural integrity of the cell
wall
D. Inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, interfering with bacterial DNA
replication and segregation ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin inhibit DNA gyrase and
topoisomerase IV, interfering with bacterial DNA replication and segregation.
Choice B is incorrect because causing DNA strand breakage via reactive
metabolites is the mechanism of metronidazole, not fluoroquinolones.
Remembering that fluoroquinolones target DNA topology helps distinguish them
from other drug classes.
Question 5 of 50