Exit HESI PN Exam V3 with NGN
Questions and Answers with rationales,
(A+ Guarantee)
2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with a stage 3 pressure
ulcer. Which finding indicates to the PN that the wound is healing?
A) The wound bed is dry and black.
B) The wound bed has a beefy red, granular appearance.
C) The wound edges are rolled inward.
D) There is a moderate amount of yellow purulent drainage.
Answer: B
Rationale: A beefy red, granular appearance indicates the presence
of healthy granulation tissue, which means the wound is healing. A
dry black wound indicates necrosis (eschar), rolled edges indicate
epibole (non-healing), and yellow purulent drainage indicates
infection.
2. An older adult client is admitted with dehydration. The PN notes
the client is confused and pulling at the IV line. Which intervention
should the PN implement first?
A) Apply soft wrist restraints.
B) Ask a family member to stay with the client.
C) Cover the IV site with an elastic bandage.
D) Reorient the client and assess for pain or discomfort.
Answer: D
Rationale: The least restrictive intervention should always be
attempted first. Reorienting the client and assessing for unmet
needs (like pain or needing to void) is the priority. Restraints require
a prescription and are a last resort.
3. A client receiving loop diuretics reports experiencing leg cramps.
Which laboratory value should the PN monitor most closely?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
,C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics (like furosemide) are potassium-wasting.
Leg cramps are an early sign of hypokalemia (low potassium). The
PN must monitor potassium levels closely to prevent life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias.
4. The PN is reinforcing teaching for a client with GERD. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day."
B) "I should lie down for 30 minutes after eating."
C) "I will avoid eating spicy foods and citrus fruits."
D) "I will elevate the head of my bed on blocks."
Answer: B
Rationale: Lying down after eating exacerbates GERD by allowing
stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. The client should
remain upright for at least 1-2 hours after meals.
5. The PN is collecting data on a client who had a thoracentesis 1
hour ago. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Mild bruising at the puncture site.
B) Complaints of thirst.
C) A pulse oximetry of 92% on room air.
D) Diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
Answer: D
Rationale: Diminished breath sounds after a thoracentesis may
indicate a pneumothorax, a complication of the procedure. This is a
medical emergency requiring immediate provider notification. Mild
bruising is normal, and thirst is not critical.
6. A PN is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter.
Which action prevents catheter-associated urinary tract infections
(CAUTI)?
, A) Keeping the drainage bag above the level of the bladder.
B) Emptying the drainage bag when it is completely full.
C) Performing perineal care twice a day and after bowel movements.
D) Disconnecting the catheter to obtain a sterile urine specimen.
Answer: C
Rationale: Routine perineal care clears bacteria from the meatus,
reducing the risk of CAUTI. The bag must remain below the bladder,
should be emptied when 2/3 full (not completely full), and the
system should never be disconnected unless sterilely obtaining a
specimen.
7. NGN: A 72-year-old client with pneumonia is admitted. They have
a history of heart failure. Vital signs: T 101.2°F, HR 110, RR 28, BP
100/60. The PN notes bibasilar crackles and 2+ pitting edema in the
lower extremities. Based on the cues, what is the priority
hypothesis?
A) The client is developing sepsis.
B) The client is experiencing fluid volume overload.
C) The client has a pulmonary embolism.
D) The client is experiencing an allergic reaction.
Answer: B
Rationale: The client's history of heart failure, presence of bibasilar
crackles, and 2+ pitting edema strongly suggest fluid volume
overload. The elevated heart rate and respiratory rate are
compensatory mechanisms. While pneumonia is present, the fluid
overload is the immediate threat to oxygenation.
8. A client is prescribed warfarin sodium for atrial fibrillation. Which
food should the PN advise the client to consume in consistent
amounts?
A) Citrus fruits
B) Dark green leafy vegetables
C) Red meat
D) Dairy products
Questions and Answers with rationales,
(A+ Guarantee)
2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with a stage 3 pressure
ulcer. Which finding indicates to the PN that the wound is healing?
A) The wound bed is dry and black.
B) The wound bed has a beefy red, granular appearance.
C) The wound edges are rolled inward.
D) There is a moderate amount of yellow purulent drainage.
Answer: B
Rationale: A beefy red, granular appearance indicates the presence
of healthy granulation tissue, which means the wound is healing. A
dry black wound indicates necrosis (eschar), rolled edges indicate
epibole (non-healing), and yellow purulent drainage indicates
infection.
2. An older adult client is admitted with dehydration. The PN notes
the client is confused and pulling at the IV line. Which intervention
should the PN implement first?
A) Apply soft wrist restraints.
B) Ask a family member to stay with the client.
C) Cover the IV site with an elastic bandage.
D) Reorient the client and assess for pain or discomfort.
Answer: D
Rationale: The least restrictive intervention should always be
attempted first. Reorienting the client and assessing for unmet
needs (like pain or needing to void) is the priority. Restraints require
a prescription and are a last resort.
3. A client receiving loop diuretics reports experiencing leg cramps.
Which laboratory value should the PN monitor most closely?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
,C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics (like furosemide) are potassium-wasting.
Leg cramps are an early sign of hypokalemia (low potassium). The
PN must monitor potassium levels closely to prevent life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias.
4. The PN is reinforcing teaching for a client with GERD. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day."
B) "I should lie down for 30 minutes after eating."
C) "I will avoid eating spicy foods and citrus fruits."
D) "I will elevate the head of my bed on blocks."
Answer: B
Rationale: Lying down after eating exacerbates GERD by allowing
stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. The client should
remain upright for at least 1-2 hours after meals.
5. The PN is collecting data on a client who had a thoracentesis 1
hour ago. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Mild bruising at the puncture site.
B) Complaints of thirst.
C) A pulse oximetry of 92% on room air.
D) Diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
Answer: D
Rationale: Diminished breath sounds after a thoracentesis may
indicate a pneumothorax, a complication of the procedure. This is a
medical emergency requiring immediate provider notification. Mild
bruising is normal, and thirst is not critical.
6. A PN is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter.
Which action prevents catheter-associated urinary tract infections
(CAUTI)?
, A) Keeping the drainage bag above the level of the bladder.
B) Emptying the drainage bag when it is completely full.
C) Performing perineal care twice a day and after bowel movements.
D) Disconnecting the catheter to obtain a sterile urine specimen.
Answer: C
Rationale: Routine perineal care clears bacteria from the meatus,
reducing the risk of CAUTI. The bag must remain below the bladder,
should be emptied when 2/3 full (not completely full), and the
system should never be disconnected unless sterilely obtaining a
specimen.
7. NGN: A 72-year-old client with pneumonia is admitted. They have
a history of heart failure. Vital signs: T 101.2°F, HR 110, RR 28, BP
100/60. The PN notes bibasilar crackles and 2+ pitting edema in the
lower extremities. Based on the cues, what is the priority
hypothesis?
A) The client is developing sepsis.
B) The client is experiencing fluid volume overload.
C) The client has a pulmonary embolism.
D) The client is experiencing an allergic reaction.
Answer: B
Rationale: The client's history of heart failure, presence of bibasilar
crackles, and 2+ pitting edema strongly suggest fluid volume
overload. The elevated heart rate and respiratory rate are
compensatory mechanisms. While pneumonia is present, the fluid
overload is the immediate threat to oxygenation.
8. A client is prescribed warfarin sodium for atrial fibrillation. Which
food should the PN advise the client to consume in consistent
amounts?
A) Citrus fruits
B) Dark green leafy vegetables
C) Red meat
D) Dairy products