ATI Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam Study Guide 2026
PDF for PN and RN Students | Adult Health Disorders,
Nursing Assessment and Interventions, Patient Safety
Principles, Medication Administration, Clinical
Decision-Making, Nursing Process Application |
Complete A+ Grade
Question 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: B - Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss
(hypokalemia), which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients also taking
digitalis preparations. Potassium levels should be monitored closely .
Question 2
A client with angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "Take one tablet every 15 minutes for up to 3 doses"
B) "Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water"
C) "Replace your tablets every 6 months"
D) "Take the tablet with food to prevent stomach upset"
Answer: C - Nitroglycerin tablets lose potency over time and should be replaced every 6
months. The correct administration is: one tablet sublingually every 5 minutes for up to
3 doses. Nitroglycerin is not swallowed .
,Question 3
Which assessment finding in a client with heart failure indicates worsening of the
condition?
A) Weight loss of 1 pound in 24 hours
B) Increased urine output
C) Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs
D) Decreased peripheral edema
Answer: C - Dyspnea and crackles (rales) indicate pulmonary congestion, a sign of
worsening heart failure and fluid overload. Weight loss, increased urine output, and
decreased edema indicate improvement .
Question 4
A client is diagnosed with hypertension and prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect is
most important to monitor?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Dry cough
C) Angioedema
D) Hypotension
Answer: D - Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause significant hypotension,
especially with the first dose. Clients should be monitored for signs of hypotension,
including dizziness and syncope .
Question 5
A client with coronary artery disease is prescribed aspirin daily. What is the primary
purpose of this medication?
A) To relieve chest pain
B) To reduce inflammation
C) To prevent platelet aggregation
D) To lower blood pressure
,Answer: C - Low-dose aspirin is prescribed for its antiplatelet effect, reducing the risk of
thrombus formation and preventing myocardial infarction and stroke .
Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 12 hours ago. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Chest pain that is relieved by nitroglycerin
B) Heart rate of 80 bpm
C) Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs
D) Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
Answer: C - Dyspnea and crackles may indicate heart failure as a complication of MI,
requiring immediate intervention. Chest pain that is relieved by medication is expected .
Question 7
A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is being discharged. Which instruction
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "Elevate your legs above your heart when resting"
B) "Apply heat to your legs to improve circulation"
C) "Walk until you feel pain, rest, and then continue"
D) "Avoid walking to prevent further discomfort"
Answer: C - Clients with PAD should walk until they feel pain, rest until it subsides, and
then continue walking. This promotes collateral circulation. Elevating legs above the
heart can worsen arterial insufficiency and should be avoided .
Question 8
A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor?
A) aPTT
B) INR
, C) Platelet count
D) Bleeding time
Answer: B - INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor warfarin therapy.
The therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation is typically 2.0-3.0 .
Question 9
Which finding in a client with a new permanent pacemaker requires immediate
notification of the healthcare provider?
A) Pulse rate of 72 bpm
B) Incisional discomfort
C) Hiccupping that does not stop
D) Dizziness when changing positions
Answer: C - Persistent hiccupping may indicate diaphragmatic pacing from a displaced
lead and requires immediate evaluation. Minor incisional pain, a pulse of 72 bpm, and
mild dizziness with position changes are expected .
Question 10
A client is receiving IV heparin. Which sign indicates a potential adverse reaction?
A) Bruising at the IV site
B) Hematuria (blood in urine)
C) Headache
D) Nausea
Answer: B - Hematuria indicates bleeding, a serious adverse reaction to heparin.
Bruising at the IV site is expected, and headache and nausea are not specific signs of
bleeding .
Question 11
A client with chronic heart failure has a potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L. Which intervention
should the nurse implement?
PDF for PN and RN Students | Adult Health Disorders,
Nursing Assessment and Interventions, Patient Safety
Principles, Medication Administration, Clinical
Decision-Making, Nursing Process Application |
Complete A+ Grade
Question 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: B - Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss
(hypokalemia), which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients also taking
digitalis preparations. Potassium levels should be monitored closely .
Question 2
A client with angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "Take one tablet every 15 minutes for up to 3 doses"
B) "Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water"
C) "Replace your tablets every 6 months"
D) "Take the tablet with food to prevent stomach upset"
Answer: C - Nitroglycerin tablets lose potency over time and should be replaced every 6
months. The correct administration is: one tablet sublingually every 5 minutes for up to
3 doses. Nitroglycerin is not swallowed .
,Question 3
Which assessment finding in a client with heart failure indicates worsening of the
condition?
A) Weight loss of 1 pound in 24 hours
B) Increased urine output
C) Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs
D) Decreased peripheral edema
Answer: C - Dyspnea and crackles (rales) indicate pulmonary congestion, a sign of
worsening heart failure and fluid overload. Weight loss, increased urine output, and
decreased edema indicate improvement .
Question 4
A client is diagnosed with hypertension and prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect is
most important to monitor?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Dry cough
C) Angioedema
D) Hypotension
Answer: D - Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause significant hypotension,
especially with the first dose. Clients should be monitored for signs of hypotension,
including dizziness and syncope .
Question 5
A client with coronary artery disease is prescribed aspirin daily. What is the primary
purpose of this medication?
A) To relieve chest pain
B) To reduce inflammation
C) To prevent platelet aggregation
D) To lower blood pressure
,Answer: C - Low-dose aspirin is prescribed for its antiplatelet effect, reducing the risk of
thrombus formation and preventing myocardial infarction and stroke .
Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 12 hours ago. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Chest pain that is relieved by nitroglycerin
B) Heart rate of 80 bpm
C) Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs
D) Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
Answer: C - Dyspnea and crackles may indicate heart failure as a complication of MI,
requiring immediate intervention. Chest pain that is relieved by medication is expected .
Question 7
A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is being discharged. Which instruction
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "Elevate your legs above your heart when resting"
B) "Apply heat to your legs to improve circulation"
C) "Walk until you feel pain, rest, and then continue"
D) "Avoid walking to prevent further discomfort"
Answer: C - Clients with PAD should walk until they feel pain, rest until it subsides, and
then continue walking. This promotes collateral circulation. Elevating legs above the
heart can worsen arterial insufficiency and should be avoided .
Question 8
A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor?
A) aPTT
B) INR
, C) Platelet count
D) Bleeding time
Answer: B - INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor warfarin therapy.
The therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation is typically 2.0-3.0 .
Question 9
Which finding in a client with a new permanent pacemaker requires immediate
notification of the healthcare provider?
A) Pulse rate of 72 bpm
B) Incisional discomfort
C) Hiccupping that does not stop
D) Dizziness when changing positions
Answer: C - Persistent hiccupping may indicate diaphragmatic pacing from a displaced
lead and requires immediate evaluation. Minor incisional pain, a pulse of 72 bpm, and
mild dizziness with position changes are expected .
Question 10
A client is receiving IV heparin. Which sign indicates a potential adverse reaction?
A) Bruising at the IV site
B) Hematuria (blood in urine)
C) Headache
D) Nausea
Answer: B - Hematuria indicates bleeding, a serious adverse reaction to heparin.
Bruising at the IV site is expected, and headache and nausea are not specific signs of
bleeding .
Question 11
A client with chronic heart failure has a potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L. Which intervention
should the nurse implement?
