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NUR 265 Exam 2 (2 Versions) – Medical-Surgical Nursing – (2026/2027) Actual Questions & Answers (GCN) 100% Guarantee Pass

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NUR 265 Exam 2 (2 Versions) contains two complete Medical-Surgical Nursing exam versions for Galen College of Nursing with 50 tested questions per version, verified answers, and rationales. Covers pulmonary embolism, ARDS, chest tubes, mechanical ventilation, diabetes insipidus, SIADH, Cushing’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, thyroid disorders, HHS, DKA, and endocrine nursing concepts. Ideal for Med-Surg exam preparation and NCLEX-style review. NUR 265 Exam 2, NUR 265 Exam 2 Answers, NUR 265 Exam 2 PDF, NUR 265 Medical Surgical Nursing, Medical Surgical Nursing Exam 2, Galen College Nursing Exam, NUR 265 Practice Test, NUR 265 Study Guide, NUR 265 Test Bank, Med Surg Exam Questions, Med Surg Nursing Review, Pulmonary Embolism Nursing Questions, ARDS Nursing Exam, Mechanical Ventilation Questions, Chest Tube Nursing Questions, Respiratory Disorders Nursing Exam, Diabetes Insipidus Questions, SIADH Nursing Questions, Cushing Syndrome Nursing Exam, Addison Disease Nursing Questions, Thyroid Disorders Nursing Exam, Hyperthyroidism Questions, Hypothyroidism Questions, HHS Nursing Questions, Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State, DKA Nursing Questions, Endocrine Nursing Exam, NCLEX Style Questions, Nursing Exam Prep PDF, Galen Med Surg Exam.

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, NUR 265 Exam 2 (2 Versions) – Medical-Surgical
Nursing –Actual Questions & Answers (GCN)
100% Guarantee Pass

Version 1
1. The nurse is assessing a client who is suspected of having a pulmonary
embolism (PE). Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis?

• A) Bradycardia

• B) Cough

• C) Lower extremity edema

• D) Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct Answer: B) Cough
Rationale: A cough, often dry or with minimal sputum, is a common symptom of a PE
due to irritation or infarction of pulmonary tissues. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is more
typical. Lower extremity edema is a sign of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a risk
factor for a PE but not a direct finding .

2. A client on a mechanical ventilator has a high-pressure alarm sounding. What is
the nurse's priority action?

• A) Suction the client immediately

• B) Silence the alarm and troubleshoot

• C) Assess the client and call for help

• D) Increase the PEEP setting

Correct Answer: C) Assess the client and call for help
Rationale: The priority is to assess the patient, not the monitor. Common causes of a
high-pressure alarm include a blocked airway from secretions, coughing, a kink in the
tubing, or a tension pneumothorax. If the patient is in respiratory distress, the nurse
should call for help, disconnect the ventilator, and start bagging .

,3. The nurse is caring for a client who is 4 days post-operative and suddenly
develops difficulty breathing and sharp chest pain. After calling the Rapid
Response Team and applying oxygen, which actions should the nurse take next?



1. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.



2. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.



3. Connect the client to a continuous pulse oximeter.

• A) 1 only

• B) 2 only

• C) 3 only

• D) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Rationale: All three actions are appropriate and should be initiated simultaneously to
assess the client's respiratory and cardiac status. These interventions provide critical
baseline data to guide further treatment for a suspected PE .

4. The nurse has provided discharge teaching to a client who developed a PE
following a surgical procedure. The client will be taking newly prescribed warfarin
at home. Which of the following client statements indicates a correct
understanding?

• A) "Hard candy can be used if I develop a dry mouth while taking warfarin."

• B) "The warfarin will continue to break up the clot over the next several months."

• C) "I should avoid anything rectally, such as enemas or suppositories."

• D) "I will take this medication for about 1-2 months."

Correct Answer: C) "I should avoid anything rectally, such as enemas or
suppositories."

, Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Rectal
procedures and enemas can cause trauma and bleeding and should be avoided.
Warfarin does not break up a clot; it prevents new clots from forming. It is often taken
for 3-6 months or longer .

5. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result would the nurse initially expect in a client
experiencing a pulmonary embolism?

• A) pH 7.31, PaO2 73 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 22 mEq/L, SaO2 85%

• B) pH 7.50, PaO2 79 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, HCO3 23 mEq/L, SaO2 88%

• C) pH 7.35, PaO2 63 mm Hg, PaCO2 42 mm Hg, HCO3 26 mEq/L, SaO2 84%

• D) pH 7.45, PaO2 70 mm Hg, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L, SaO2 86%

Correct Answer: B) pH 7.50, PaO2 79 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, HCO3 23 mEq/L,
SaO2 88%
Rationale: An early PE often results in respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation (low
PaCO2), leading to a high pH (alkalemia), mild hypoxemia (low PaO2), and a decreased
SaO2 due to ventilation-perfusion mismatch .

6. A client is diagnosed with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Which
intervention is most appropriate for this client?

• A) Prone positioning

• B) High tidal volume ventilation

• C) Rapid weaning from the ventilator

• D) Suctioning every 30 minutes

Correct Answer: A) Prone positioning
Rationale: Prone positioning improves ventilation-perfusion matching, which can be
severely compromised in ARDS. High tidal volumes can cause ventilator-induced lung
injury. Suctioning is performed as needed, not on a fixed schedule .

7. A client on a ventilator has a PaCO2 of 58 mmHg. Which ventilator adjustment
might the provider order?

• A) Increase PEEP

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