NURS 617 Exam 1 Prep
NURS 617 EXAM 1 PREP NEWEST 2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW
VERSION!!
Pathologic hyperplasia can lead to:
a. phagocytosis.
b. stem cell activation.
c. enlargement of the uterus.
d. metaplasia. - Correct Answer-d. metaplasia.
Which of the following is a form of metaplasia that can occur in the human body?
a. Epithelial cells of the bronchial lining are replaced with collagenous connective
tissue.
b. Adipose cells are replaced by cells that cannot store lipids.
c. Squamous epithelial cells of the esophageal lining are replaced by glandular
cells similar to those lining the stomach.
d. Liver cells are replaced by squamous epithelial cells. - Correct Answer-c.
Squamous epithelial cells of the esophageal lining are replaced by glandular cells
similar to those lining the stomach.
Free radicals directly injure cells by each of the following mechanisms except:
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, NURS 617 Exam 1 Prep
a. DNA fragmentation.
b. lipid peroxidation.
c. activation of lysosomal enzymes.
d. alteration of proteins. - Correct Answer-c. activation of lysosomal enzymes.
Restoration of oxygen to oxygen-deprived tissues results in:
a. chemical injury.
b. establishment of normal cell metabolism.
c. reperfusion injury.
d. hypoxic injury. - Correct Answer-c. reperfusion injury.
The process of cellular atrophy may be accomplished through which of the
following processes?
a. Decreased cell division
b. Loss of fluid
c. Formation of autophagic vacuoles
d. Inhibition of enzyme formation - Correct Answer-c. Formation of autophagic
vacuoles
A direct result of anaerobic metabolism during hypoxic cell injury is:
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, NURS 617 Exam 1 Prep
a. metabolic acidosis.
b. tissue ischemia.
c. all of the above.
d. increased adenosine triphosphate (ATP). - Correct Answer-a. metabolic acidosis.
Which of the following cellular processes occurs during apoptosis?
a. cell lysis
b. cellular swelling
c. cleavage of key cellular proteins
d. activation of inflammation - Correct Answer-c. cleavage of key cellular proteins
A healthcare professional is assessing a child who has complete trisomy of the
twenty-first chromosome. What findings does the professional relate to this
condition?
a. High pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
b. Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body
hair
c. An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
d. Circumoral cyanosis, edema, of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness -
Correct Answer-c. An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat,
low-set ears
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, NURS 617 Exam 1 Prep
Rationale: This child has Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome. These
children typically present with IQs ranging from 25 to 70. The facial appearance is
distinctive and exhibits a low nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, protruding tongue,
and flay, low-set ears. Widely spaced nipples and edema of the newborn's feet are
characteristic of Turner syndrome. The high-pitched voice and gynecomastia are
characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome.
What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?
a. Paternal nondisjunction
b. Maternal nondisjunction
c. Paternal translocation
d. Maternal translocations - Correct Answer-b. Maternal nondisjunction
Rationale: Nondisjunction during the formation of one of the parent's gametes or
during early embryonic development occurs in approximately 97% of infants born
with Down syndrome. In approximately 90% to 95% of infants, the nondisjunction
occurs in the formation of the mother's egg cell. Down syndrome is rarely caused
by paternal nondisjunction. Robertsonian translocations are responsible for 3% to
5% of cases of Down syndrome. A high-pitched voice and gynecomastia are
characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome.
A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which
syndrome?
a. Fragile X
b. Turner
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NURS 617 EXAM 1 PREP NEWEST 2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW
VERSION!!
Pathologic hyperplasia can lead to:
a. phagocytosis.
b. stem cell activation.
c. enlargement of the uterus.
d. metaplasia. - Correct Answer-d. metaplasia.
Which of the following is a form of metaplasia that can occur in the human body?
a. Epithelial cells of the bronchial lining are replaced with collagenous connective
tissue.
b. Adipose cells are replaced by cells that cannot store lipids.
c. Squamous epithelial cells of the esophageal lining are replaced by glandular
cells similar to those lining the stomach.
d. Liver cells are replaced by squamous epithelial cells. - Correct Answer-c.
Squamous epithelial cells of the esophageal lining are replaced by glandular cells
similar to those lining the stomach.
Free radicals directly injure cells by each of the following mechanisms except:
1|Page
, NURS 617 Exam 1 Prep
a. DNA fragmentation.
b. lipid peroxidation.
c. activation of lysosomal enzymes.
d. alteration of proteins. - Correct Answer-c. activation of lysosomal enzymes.
Restoration of oxygen to oxygen-deprived tissues results in:
a. chemical injury.
b. establishment of normal cell metabolism.
c. reperfusion injury.
d. hypoxic injury. - Correct Answer-c. reperfusion injury.
The process of cellular atrophy may be accomplished through which of the
following processes?
a. Decreased cell division
b. Loss of fluid
c. Formation of autophagic vacuoles
d. Inhibition of enzyme formation - Correct Answer-c. Formation of autophagic
vacuoles
A direct result of anaerobic metabolism during hypoxic cell injury is:
2|Page
, NURS 617 Exam 1 Prep
a. metabolic acidosis.
b. tissue ischemia.
c. all of the above.
d. increased adenosine triphosphate (ATP). - Correct Answer-a. metabolic acidosis.
Which of the following cellular processes occurs during apoptosis?
a. cell lysis
b. cellular swelling
c. cleavage of key cellular proteins
d. activation of inflammation - Correct Answer-c. cleavage of key cellular proteins
A healthcare professional is assessing a child who has complete trisomy of the
twenty-first chromosome. What findings does the professional relate to this
condition?
a. High pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
b. Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body
hair
c. An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
d. Circumoral cyanosis, edema, of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness -
Correct Answer-c. An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat,
low-set ears
3|Page
, NURS 617 Exam 1 Prep
Rationale: This child has Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome. These
children typically present with IQs ranging from 25 to 70. The facial appearance is
distinctive and exhibits a low nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, protruding tongue,
and flay, low-set ears. Widely spaced nipples and edema of the newborn's feet are
characteristic of Turner syndrome. The high-pitched voice and gynecomastia are
characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome.
What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?
a. Paternal nondisjunction
b. Maternal nondisjunction
c. Paternal translocation
d. Maternal translocations - Correct Answer-b. Maternal nondisjunction
Rationale: Nondisjunction during the formation of one of the parent's gametes or
during early embryonic development occurs in approximately 97% of infants born
with Down syndrome. In approximately 90% to 95% of infants, the nondisjunction
occurs in the formation of the mother's egg cell. Down syndrome is rarely caused
by paternal nondisjunction. Robertsonian translocations are responsible for 3% to
5% of cases of Down syndrome. A high-pitched voice and gynecomastia are
characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome.
A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which
syndrome?
a. Fragile X
b. Turner
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