ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2026 questions and well
detailed answers
Question 1
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client using
Naegele's rule. The client states that her last menstrual period (LMP) began on
May 14. Which of the following is the client's estimated date of delivery?
• A) February 21 of the following year
• B) February 7 of the following year
• C) March 21 of the following year
• D) April 14 of the following year
Correct Answer: A) February 21 of the following year Rationale: According to
Naegele's rule, to calculate the EDD, take the first day of the last menstrual period,
subtract 3 months, add 7 days, and add 1 year. Subtracting 3 months from May 14
brings it to February 14, adding 7 days results in February 21.
Question 2
A nurse is providing dietary counseling to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching regarding folic acid intake?
• A) "I will increase my intake of dark green leafy vegetables, beans, and
orange juice."
• B) "I only need to take folic acid during the final trimester of my pregnancy."
• C) "Folic acid replacement is only necessary if I develop gestational
anemia."
• D) "I can stop taking my prenatal vitamins once morning sickness resolves."
Correct Answer: A) "I will increase my intake of dark green leafy vegetables,
beans, and orange juice." Rationale: Folic acid is essential prior to conception and
during early pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Good dietary sources
include leafy green vegetables, citrus fruits, dried beans, and fortified grains.
Question 3
,ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2026 questions and well
detailed answers
A nurse is preparing a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation for an amniocentesis.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the preprocedure
instructions?
• A) "You should empty your bladder immediately prior to the procedure."
• B) "You must remain NPO for 12 hours before the amniocentesis."
• C) "General anesthesia will be administered during the needle insertion."
• D) "You will need to maintain strict bed rest for 48 hours following the test."
Correct Answer: A) "You should empty your bladder immediately prior to the
procedure." Rationale: At 16 weeks of gestation, the bladder should be emptied
prior to an amniocentesis to reduce the risk of accidental puncture by the needle.
(Note: In early pregnancy < 13 weeks, a full bladder is needed to support the
uterus).
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has a diagnosis of
mild preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to
assess?
• A) Proteinuria of 1+ on a random urine dipstick and blood pressure of
145/90 mmHg
• B) Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg and trace glucose in the urine
• C) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures and upper right quadrant pain
• D) Platelet count of 50,000/mm³ and elevated liver enzymes
Correct Answer: A) Proteinuria of 1+ on a random urine dipstick and blood
pressure of 145/90 mmHg Rationale: Diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia include
hypertension (blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or greater on two occasions at
least 4 hours apart) and proteinuria (1+ or greater) developing after 20 weeks of
gestation. Seizures indicate eclampsia.
Question 5
,ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2026 questions and well
detailed answers
A nurse is admitting a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing
painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions should the
nurse suspect?
• A) Placenta previa
• B) Abruptio placentae
• C) Severe preeclampsia
• D) Ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: A) Placenta previa Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester as the lower
uterine segment thrips and the placenta implants low or over the cervical os.
Abruptio placentae typically presents with dark red bleeding and severe, constant
abdominal pain.
Question 6
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a 1-hour oral glucose tolerance test
for a client who is at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following blood glucose
levels requires a 3-hour glucose tolerance test confirmation?
• A) 145 mg/dL
• B) 120 mg/dL
• C) 130 mg/dL
• D) 115 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A) 145 mg/dL Rationale: For a 1-hour glucose tolerance test (50g
oral glucose load), a threshold of 130 to 140 mg/dL is typically used to identify
clients needing a definitive 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. A value of 145
mg/dL is above this threshold.
Question 7
A nurse is performing Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor. Which of the
following actions should the nurse perform during the first maneuver?
, ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2026 questions and well
detailed answers
• A) Palpate the fundus of the uterus to identify the fetal part present.
• B) Palpate the sides of the abdomen to locate the fetal back.
• C) Palpate the pubic symphysis to determine fetal attitude.
• D) Palpate the lower uterine segment to assess engagement.
Correct Answer: A) Palpate the fundus of the uterus to identify the fetal part
present. Rationale: The first Leopold maneuver involves facing the client's head
and palpating the uterine fundus to determine whether the head or breech
(buttocks) is occupying the upper pole of the uterus.
Question 8
A nurse is monitoring the electronic fetal heart rate of a client in active labor and
notes consistent fetal heart rate decelerations that begin after the contraction has
started and return to baseline after the contraction has ended. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
• A) Reposition the client to a side-lying position.
• B) Increase the rate of the primary intravenous infusion.
• C) Administer oxytocin to stimulate contractions.
• D) Prepare the client for immediate cesarean birth.
Correct Answer: A) Reposition the client to a side-lying position. Rationale: Late
decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The nurse's immediate priority
actions include changing maternal position (side-lying), administering oxygen via
face mask, stopping oxytocin if infusing, and increasing IV fluids.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client in labor who just received an epidural block. Which of
the following maternal complications is the highest priority for the nurse to
monitor?
• A) Hypotension
detailed answers
Question 1
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client using
Naegele's rule. The client states that her last menstrual period (LMP) began on
May 14. Which of the following is the client's estimated date of delivery?
• A) February 21 of the following year
• B) February 7 of the following year
• C) March 21 of the following year
• D) April 14 of the following year
Correct Answer: A) February 21 of the following year Rationale: According to
Naegele's rule, to calculate the EDD, take the first day of the last menstrual period,
subtract 3 months, add 7 days, and add 1 year. Subtracting 3 months from May 14
brings it to February 14, adding 7 days results in February 21.
Question 2
A nurse is providing dietary counseling to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching regarding folic acid intake?
• A) "I will increase my intake of dark green leafy vegetables, beans, and
orange juice."
• B) "I only need to take folic acid during the final trimester of my pregnancy."
• C) "Folic acid replacement is only necessary if I develop gestational
anemia."
• D) "I can stop taking my prenatal vitamins once morning sickness resolves."
Correct Answer: A) "I will increase my intake of dark green leafy vegetables,
beans, and orange juice." Rationale: Folic acid is essential prior to conception and
during early pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Good dietary sources
include leafy green vegetables, citrus fruits, dried beans, and fortified grains.
Question 3
,ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2026 questions and well
detailed answers
A nurse is preparing a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation for an amniocentesis.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the preprocedure
instructions?
• A) "You should empty your bladder immediately prior to the procedure."
• B) "You must remain NPO for 12 hours before the amniocentesis."
• C) "General anesthesia will be administered during the needle insertion."
• D) "You will need to maintain strict bed rest for 48 hours following the test."
Correct Answer: A) "You should empty your bladder immediately prior to the
procedure." Rationale: At 16 weeks of gestation, the bladder should be emptied
prior to an amniocentesis to reduce the risk of accidental puncture by the needle.
(Note: In early pregnancy < 13 weeks, a full bladder is needed to support the
uterus).
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has a diagnosis of
mild preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to
assess?
• A) Proteinuria of 1+ on a random urine dipstick and blood pressure of
145/90 mmHg
• B) Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg and trace glucose in the urine
• C) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures and upper right quadrant pain
• D) Platelet count of 50,000/mm³ and elevated liver enzymes
Correct Answer: A) Proteinuria of 1+ on a random urine dipstick and blood
pressure of 145/90 mmHg Rationale: Diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia include
hypertension (blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or greater on two occasions at
least 4 hours apart) and proteinuria (1+ or greater) developing after 20 weeks of
gestation. Seizures indicate eclampsia.
Question 5
,ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2026 questions and well
detailed answers
A nurse is admitting a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing
painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions should the
nurse suspect?
• A) Placenta previa
• B) Abruptio placentae
• C) Severe preeclampsia
• D) Ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: A) Placenta previa Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester as the lower
uterine segment thrips and the placenta implants low or over the cervical os.
Abruptio placentae typically presents with dark red bleeding and severe, constant
abdominal pain.
Question 6
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a 1-hour oral glucose tolerance test
for a client who is at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following blood glucose
levels requires a 3-hour glucose tolerance test confirmation?
• A) 145 mg/dL
• B) 120 mg/dL
• C) 130 mg/dL
• D) 115 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A) 145 mg/dL Rationale: For a 1-hour glucose tolerance test (50g
oral glucose load), a threshold of 130 to 140 mg/dL is typically used to identify
clients needing a definitive 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. A value of 145
mg/dL is above this threshold.
Question 7
A nurse is performing Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor. Which of the
following actions should the nurse perform during the first maneuver?
, ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2026 questions and well
detailed answers
• A) Palpate the fundus of the uterus to identify the fetal part present.
• B) Palpate the sides of the abdomen to locate the fetal back.
• C) Palpate the pubic symphysis to determine fetal attitude.
• D) Palpate the lower uterine segment to assess engagement.
Correct Answer: A) Palpate the fundus of the uterus to identify the fetal part
present. Rationale: The first Leopold maneuver involves facing the client's head
and palpating the uterine fundus to determine whether the head or breech
(buttocks) is occupying the upper pole of the uterus.
Question 8
A nurse is monitoring the electronic fetal heart rate of a client in active labor and
notes consistent fetal heart rate decelerations that begin after the contraction has
started and return to baseline after the contraction has ended. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
• A) Reposition the client to a side-lying position.
• B) Increase the rate of the primary intravenous infusion.
• C) Administer oxytocin to stimulate contractions.
• D) Prepare the client for immediate cesarean birth.
Correct Answer: A) Reposition the client to a side-lying position. Rationale: Late
decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The nurse's immediate priority
actions include changing maternal position (side-lying), administering oxygen via
face mask, stopping oxytocin if infusing, and increasing IV fluids.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client in labor who just received an epidural block. Which of
the following maternal complications is the highest priority for the nurse to
monitor?
• A) Hypotension
