,NUR 210 Exam 4 | Principles of Pharmacology
(2026) Q&A | Galen College
1. A client is prescribed acyclovir for herpes zoster. Which adverse effect
indicates possible nephrotoxicity?
A) Hypotension
B) GI distress
C) Decreased urine output
D) Headache
Correct Answer: Decreased urine output
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause crystalluria, leading to kidney injury. Decreased
urine output is a warning sign. The nurse should monitor renal function and
encourage increased fluid intake to prevent this complication.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about acyclovir. Which statement indicates
understanding of crystalluria prevention?
A) "I will increase my fluid intake to at least 2‑3 liters per day."
B) "I will take the medication on an empty stomach."
C) "I will avoid all fluids after taking the dose."
D) "I will take the medication with milk."
Correct Answer: "I will increase my fluid intake to at least 2‑3 liters per day."
,Rationale: Adequate hydration dilutes the urine and reduces the risk of crystal
formation. The client should drink plenty of water throughout the day. Taking
the drug with food reduces GI upset but does not prevent crystalluria.
3. A client with a UTI is prescribed phenazopyridine. Which statement indicates
the client understands the purpose of this drug?
A) "This will kill the bacteria causing the infection."
B) "I will take this only at bedtime."
C) "This will prevent future UTIs."
D) "This will relieve the burning but won't treat the infection."
Correct Answer: "This will relieve the burning but won't treat the infection."
Rationale: Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that eases dysuria but has no
antibacterial action. Urine may turn orange‑red. The client must still take the
prescribed antibiotic.
4. The nurse is administering IV acyclovir. What is the correct infusion time to
minimize adverse effects?
A) Rapid IV push
B) Infuse slowly over at least 60 minutes
C) Over 10‑15 minutes
D) Intramuscular injection
Correct Answer: Infuse slowly over at least 60 minutes
, Rationale: Slow infusion reduces the risk of crystalluria and phlebitis. Adequate
hydration is essential. IV acyclovir should not be given as a rapid bolus.
5. The nurse is monitoring a client on cefepime. Which finding suggests a
superinfection?
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Flushing
C) Oral thrush and watery diarrhea
D) Bradycardia
Correct Answer: Oral thrush and watery diarrhea
Rationale: Superinfection results from disruption of normal flora, allowing
overgrowth of Candida or C. difficile. Oral thrush (white patches) and diarrhea
are classic signs. The nurse should report these findings.
6. A client has a draining wound. What is the priority nursing action before
starting antibiotics?
A) Culture the wound
B) Administer the first dose of antibiotic
C) Apply a clean dressing
D) Provide pain medication
Correct Answer: Culture the wound
(2026) Q&A | Galen College
1. A client is prescribed acyclovir for herpes zoster. Which adverse effect
indicates possible nephrotoxicity?
A) Hypotension
B) GI distress
C) Decreased urine output
D) Headache
Correct Answer: Decreased urine output
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause crystalluria, leading to kidney injury. Decreased
urine output is a warning sign. The nurse should monitor renal function and
encourage increased fluid intake to prevent this complication.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about acyclovir. Which statement indicates
understanding of crystalluria prevention?
A) "I will increase my fluid intake to at least 2‑3 liters per day."
B) "I will take the medication on an empty stomach."
C) "I will avoid all fluids after taking the dose."
D) "I will take the medication with milk."
Correct Answer: "I will increase my fluid intake to at least 2‑3 liters per day."
,Rationale: Adequate hydration dilutes the urine and reduces the risk of crystal
formation. The client should drink plenty of water throughout the day. Taking
the drug with food reduces GI upset but does not prevent crystalluria.
3. A client with a UTI is prescribed phenazopyridine. Which statement indicates
the client understands the purpose of this drug?
A) "This will kill the bacteria causing the infection."
B) "I will take this only at bedtime."
C) "This will prevent future UTIs."
D) "This will relieve the burning but won't treat the infection."
Correct Answer: "This will relieve the burning but won't treat the infection."
Rationale: Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that eases dysuria but has no
antibacterial action. Urine may turn orange‑red. The client must still take the
prescribed antibiotic.
4. The nurse is administering IV acyclovir. What is the correct infusion time to
minimize adverse effects?
A) Rapid IV push
B) Infuse slowly over at least 60 minutes
C) Over 10‑15 minutes
D) Intramuscular injection
Correct Answer: Infuse slowly over at least 60 minutes
, Rationale: Slow infusion reduces the risk of crystalluria and phlebitis. Adequate
hydration is essential. IV acyclovir should not be given as a rapid bolus.
5. The nurse is monitoring a client on cefepime. Which finding suggests a
superinfection?
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Flushing
C) Oral thrush and watery diarrhea
D) Bradycardia
Correct Answer: Oral thrush and watery diarrhea
Rationale: Superinfection results from disruption of normal flora, allowing
overgrowth of Candida or C. difficile. Oral thrush (white patches) and diarrhea
are classic signs. The nurse should report these findings.
6. A client has a draining wound. What is the priority nursing action before
starting antibiotics?
A) Culture the wound
B) Administer the first dose of antibiotic
C) Apply a clean dressing
D) Provide pain medication
Correct Answer: Culture the wound
