,NUR 210 Exam 3 | Principles of Pharmacology
(2026) Q&A | Galen College
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse understands
this medication acts on which part of the nephron?
A) Distal convoluted tubule
B) Ascending loop of Henle
C) Collecting duct
D) Proximal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: Ascending loop of Henle
Rationale: Furosemide blocks sodium and chloride reabsorption in the thick
ascending limb of the loop of Henle, producing a potent diuretic effect.
Thiazides act on the distal tubule, and potassium-sparing diuretics work on the
collecting duct.
2. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which electrolyte change should the
nurse monitor for?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: Hyperkalemia
,Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks
aldosterone, reducing potassium excretion and leading to hyperkalemia. Serum
potassium must be monitored, especially if the client is also on an ACE inhibitor
or ARB.
3. The nurse is teaching a client about lisinopril. Which adverse effect is most
characteristic?
A) Persistent dry cough
B) Tachycardia
C) Diarrhea
D) Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: Persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, causing a non-productive
cough that may require switching to an ARB. Hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, is
also a risk. Tachycardia and diarrhea are not typical.
4. A client with asthma asks which beta-blocker should be avoided. The nurse
correctly identifies:
A) Metoprolol
B) Atenolol
C) Carvedilol
D) Propranolol
Correct Answer: Propranolol
, Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks beta-2
receptors in the lungs, causing bronchoconstriction. Cardioselective agents like
metoprolol and atenolol are preferred, though still used cautiously in asthma.
5. The nurse is administering furosemide IV push. To prevent ototoxicity, the
nurse should inject the medication over at least:
A) 1 minute
B) 2 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 10 minutes
Correct Answer: 2 minutes
Rationale: Rapid IV administration of furosemide can cause ototoxicity,
manifesting as tinnitus and hearing loss. The drug should be given slowly over 1
to 2 minutes for each 20 to 40 mg, though exact times vary by protocol, but 2
minutes is a common safe standard.
6. A client with hypertension is started on amlodipine. Which common side
effect should the nurse mention?
A) Persistent cough
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Peripheral edema
D) Bronchospasm
Correct Answer: Peripheral edema
(2026) Q&A | Galen College
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse understands
this medication acts on which part of the nephron?
A) Distal convoluted tubule
B) Ascending loop of Henle
C) Collecting duct
D) Proximal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: Ascending loop of Henle
Rationale: Furosemide blocks sodium and chloride reabsorption in the thick
ascending limb of the loop of Henle, producing a potent diuretic effect.
Thiazides act on the distal tubule, and potassium-sparing diuretics work on the
collecting duct.
2. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which electrolyte change should the
nurse monitor for?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: Hyperkalemia
,Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks
aldosterone, reducing potassium excretion and leading to hyperkalemia. Serum
potassium must be monitored, especially if the client is also on an ACE inhibitor
or ARB.
3. The nurse is teaching a client about lisinopril. Which adverse effect is most
characteristic?
A) Persistent dry cough
B) Tachycardia
C) Diarrhea
D) Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: Persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, causing a non-productive
cough that may require switching to an ARB. Hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, is
also a risk. Tachycardia and diarrhea are not typical.
4. A client with asthma asks which beta-blocker should be avoided. The nurse
correctly identifies:
A) Metoprolol
B) Atenolol
C) Carvedilol
D) Propranolol
Correct Answer: Propranolol
, Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks beta-2
receptors in the lungs, causing bronchoconstriction. Cardioselective agents like
metoprolol and atenolol are preferred, though still used cautiously in asthma.
5. The nurse is administering furosemide IV push. To prevent ototoxicity, the
nurse should inject the medication over at least:
A) 1 minute
B) 2 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 10 minutes
Correct Answer: 2 minutes
Rationale: Rapid IV administration of furosemide can cause ototoxicity,
manifesting as tinnitus and hearing loss. The drug should be given slowly over 1
to 2 minutes for each 20 to 40 mg, though exact times vary by protocol, but 2
minutes is a common safe standard.
6. A client with hypertension is started on amlodipine. Which common side
effect should the nurse mention?
A) Persistent cough
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Peripheral edema
D) Bronchospasm
Correct Answer: Peripheral edema
