ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY,
ADVANCED PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT, DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS,
CLINICAL DECISION-MAKING, DIAGNOSTIC REASONING,
PATIENT ASSESSMENT, EVIDENCE-BASED PRACTICE
Question 1: A 65-year-old male with a 40-pack-year smoking history
presents with a 2-month history of hoarseness and a persistent sore
throat. He reports occasional blood-tinged sputum. On examination, a
left-sided vocal cord paralysis is noted. Which of the following is the
most likely underlying diagnosis?
A. Laryngitis
B. Vocal cord nodule
C. Laryngeal carcinoma
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Laryngeal carcinoma
Rationale: Hoarseness lasting >3 weeks in a smoker with vocal cord
paralysis suggests laryngeal carcinoma until proven otherwise. The
recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement causes vocal cord paralysis.
Laryngitis and GERD typically do not cause paralysis. Vocal cord nodules
are benign and associated with voice overuse.
Question 2: A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation
presents with sudden onset of severe, generalized abdominal pain and
,vaginal bleeding. On examination, the uterus is firm and tender. Fetal
heart tones are difficult to obtain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Uterine rupture
D. Preterm labor
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Abruptio placentae
Rationale: Abruptio placentae presents with sudden abdominal pain,
uterine tenderness, and a firm, tense uterus. Vaginal bleeding may be
present but can be concealed. This is a medical emergency. Placenta
previa typically presents with painless bleeding. Uterine rupture is less
common and usually associated with previous uterine surgery.
Question 3: A 58-year-old female with type 2 diabetes presents with a
3-day history of right lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and
nausea. On examination, she has rebound tenderness and guarding.
Laboratory tests show WBC 18,000/mm³. Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step?
A. Outpatient oral antibiotics
B. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast
C. Ultrasound of the abdomen
D. Laparoscopic appendectomy without imaging
CORRECT ANSWER: B. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast
Rationale: In adults with suspected appendicitis, CT with contrast is the
most sensitive and specific imaging modality, especially in patients with
,atypical presentations or confounding factors like diabetes. Ultrasound
is preferred in children and pregnant women.
Question 4: A 70-year-old male presents with progressive memory loss,
difficulty finding words, and personality changes over the past 18
months. His wife reports he has become apathetic and occasionally has
visual hallucinations. Mini-Mental State Examination score is 18/30.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Vascular dementia
C. Dementia with Lewy bodies
D. Frontotemporal dementia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Dementia with Lewy bodies
Rationale: Dementia with Lewy bodies is characterized by progressive
cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognition, and
Parkinsonian features. Alzheimer's typically does not have early visual
hallucinations. Vascular dementia has a stepwise progression.
Frontotemporal dementia presents with personality and behavioral
changes before memory loss.
Question 5: A 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder
presents with acute onset of severe epigastric pain radiating to his back.
He is leaning forward in the fetal position. Serum amylase is 850 U/L
and lipase is 1200 U/L. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
, A. NPO status and IV fluids
B. Oral pancreatic enzyme supplements
C. ERCP
D. Octreotide therapy
CORRECT ANSWER: A. NPO status and IV fluids
Rationale: Acute pancreatitis is treated conservatively with NPO status
to rest the pancreas, aggressive IV fluid resuscitation, and pain
management. ERCP is indicated for biliary pancreatitis with obstruction.
Octreotide is used for specific situations like pancreatic fistulas. Enzyme
supplements are for chronic pancreatitis.
Question 6: A 22-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of
severe, unilateral headache accompanied by ipsilateral lacrimation,
nasal congestion, and ptosis. The headache lasts approximately 30
minutes and occurs at the same time each night. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Migraine with aura
B. Tension-type headache
C. Cluster headache
D. Sinus headache
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Cluster headache
Rationale: Cluster headaches are characterized by severe, unilateral
periorbital pain with autonomic symptoms (lacrimation, nasal
congestion, ptosis). They have a circadian pattern and occur in clusters.
Migraines have a pulsatile quality with nausea and photophobia.
Tension headaches are bilateral and band-like.