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NURS 5432 Final Exam UPDATED ACTUAL Exam Questions and CORRECT Answers

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Prepare confidently for your NURS 5432 final with this comprehensive study guide featuring 100 original graduate-level practice questions and detailed answer rationales. The material covers core concepts commonly assessed in advanced nursing courses, including health assessment, primary care management, pharmacology, chronic and acute disease management, preventive care, diagnostic reasoning, women's health, pediatrics, geriatrics, cardiovascular disorders, endocrine disorders, respiratory conditions, and evidence-based practice. Each question is written in an NCLEX/FNP-style format to strengthen critical thinking and clinical decision-making while reinforcing key concepts for exam preparation. Detailed explanations accompany every correct answer to help learners understand the rationale behind clinical decisions and improve long-term retention. This resource is designed as an independent practice exam and review guide for graduate nursing students preparing for NURS 5432 coursework and comprehensive final

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NURS 5432 Final Exam UPDATED ACTUAL
Exam Questions and CORRECT Answers


NURS 5432 Comprehensive Practice Final Exam
Questions 1–20
1. A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 8.8%
despite metformin therapy. His eGFR is 75 mL/min/1.73 m², and
he has established cardiovascular disease. Which medication
should be added?
A. Glyburide
B. Pioglitazone
C. Empagliflozin
D. Acarbose
Correct Answer: C. Empagliflozin
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors such as empagliflozin reduce
cardiovascular events and provide renal protection in patients
with diabetes and cardiovascular disease.


2. Which blood pressure reading meets the ACC/AHA
definition of Stage 2 hypertension?
A. 126/78 mmHg
B. 132/84 mmHg

,C. 138/88 mmHg
D. 144/92 mmHg
Correct Answer: D. 144/92 mmHg
Rationale: Stage 2 hypertension is ≥140 mmHg systolic or ≥90
mmHg diastolic.


3. Which screening test is recommended for adults aged 45–75
years at average risk for colorectal cancer?
A. Annual PSA
B. Colonoscopy every 10 years
C. Chest CT annually
D. Echocardiogram every 5 years
Correct Answer: B. Colonoscopy every 10 years
Rationale: Colonoscopy every 10 years is one recommended
screening option for average-risk adults.


4. A patient presents with dysuria, urinary frequency, and
positive leukocyte esterase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Acute cystitis
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: B. Acute cystitis

,Rationale: Dysuria, frequency, and positive leukocyte esterase are
classic findings of uncomplicated cystitis.


5. Which vaccine is recommended annually for everyone aged 6
months and older unless contraindicated?
A. MMR
B. HPV
C. Influenza
D. Varicella
Correct Answer: C. Influenza
Rationale: Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for
nearly all individuals aged 6 months and older.


6. A patient taking lisinopril develops swelling of the lips and
tongue. What is the best immediate action?
A. Continue the medication
B. Reduce the dose
C. Discontinue lisinopril immediately
D. Add diphenhydramine and continue
Correct Answer: C. Discontinue lisinopril immediately
Rationale: Angioedema is a potentially life-threatening adverse
effect of ACE inhibitors.

, 7. Which laboratory value is most specific for diagnosing
diabetes mellitus?
A. Random glucose 140 mg/dL
B. Fasting glucose 110 mg/dL
C. Hemoglobin A1C ≥6.5%
D. Urine glucose
Correct Answer: C. Hemoglobin A1C ≥6.5%
Rationale: An A1C ≥6.5% is one diagnostic criterion for diabetes.


8. A patient with asthma uses albuterol every day. This
indicates:
A. Well-controlled asthma
B. Poor asthma control
C. Medication allergy
D. COPD
Correct Answer: B. Poor asthma control
Rationale: Frequent rescue inhaler use suggests inadequate
control and the need to reassess long-term therapy.


9. Which lipid-lowering medication is first-line for primary
prevention of ASCVD in appropriate patients?
A. Niacin
B. Gemfibrozil

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